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32 votes
5 answers
3k views

Why do or don't neutrinos have antiparticles?

This was inspired by this question. According to Wikipedia, a Majorana neutrino must be its own antiparticle, while a Dirac neutrino cannot be its own antiparticle. Why is this true?
Peter Shor 's user avatar
29 votes
2 answers
1k views

$\phi^4$ theory kinks as fermions?

In 1+1 dimensions there is duality between models of fermions and bosons called bosonization (or fermionization). For instance the sine-Gordon theory $$\mathcal{L}= \frac{1}{2}\partial_\mu \phi \...
octonion's user avatar
  • 8,815
26 votes
3 answers
6k views

Grassmann paradox weirdness

I'm running into an annoying problem I am unable to resolve, although a friend has given me some guidance as to how the resolution might come about. Hopefully someone on here knows the answer. It is ...
QuantumDot's user avatar
  • 6,381
25 votes
3 answers
6k views

What is the fundamental reason of the fermion doubling?

Recall that the fermion doubling is the problem in taking the $a \to 0$ limit of a naively discretized fermionic theory (defined on a lattice with lattice spacing $a$). After such a limit one finds ...
Marek's user avatar
  • 23.7k
24 votes
1 answer
4k views

Classical Fermion and Grassmann number

In the theory of relativistic wave equations, we derive the Dirac equation and Klein-Gordon equation by using representation theory of Poincare algebra. For example, in this paper http://arxiv.org/abs/...
Xiaoyi Jing's user avatar
  • 1,080
24 votes
1 answer
4k views

A reading list to build up to the spin statistics theorem

Wikipedia's article on the spin-statistics theorem sums it up thusly: In quantum mechanics, the spin-statistics theorem relates the spin of a particle to the particle statistics it obeys. The spin ...
Niel de Beaudrap's user avatar
20 votes
3 answers
5k views

Why cannot fermions have non-zero vacuum expectation value?

In quantum field theory, scalar can take non-zero vacuum expectation value (vev). And this way they break symmetry of the Lagrangian. Now my question is what will happen if the fermions in the theory ...
Paul's user avatar
  • 351
20 votes
3 answers
4k views

Why do people say that neutrinos are either Dirac or Majorana fermions?

The question of whether a given particle "is" a Dirac or Majorana fermion is more subtle than is sometimes presented. For example, if we just consider the "old" Standard Model with massless neutrinos, ...
tparker's user avatar
  • 48.4k
18 votes
4 answers
6k views

Fermions, different species and (anti-)commutation rules

My question is straightforward: Do fermionic operators associated to different species commute or anticommute? Even if these operators have different quantum numbers? How can one prove this fact in a ...
Melquíades's user avatar
  • 1,109
17 votes
1 answer
749 views

Intuition behind mass corrections to massless fermions

I'm trying to understand the intuition behind the mass correction to massless fermions. To be concrete lets consider a theory with a massless Weyl fermion ($\psi $), as well as two massive particles, ...
JeffDror's user avatar
  • 8,995
17 votes
0 answers
1k views

Time Reversal, CPT, spin-statistics, mass gap and chirality of Euclidean fermion field theory

In Minkowski space even-dim (say $d+1$ D) spacetime dimension, we can write fermion-field theory as the Lagrangian: $$ \mathcal{L}=\bar{\psi} (i\not \partial-m)\psi+ \bar{\psi} \phi_1 \psi+\bar{\psi} ...
wonderich's user avatar
  • 7,848
16 votes
4 answers
2k views

Spinning Tachyons

In all examples that I know, tachyons are described by scalar fields. I was wondering why you can't have a tachyon with spin 1. If this spinning tachyon were to condense to a vacuum, the vacuum wouldn'...
truebeliever1234's user avatar
16 votes
3 answers
3k views

What are the mathematical problems in introducing Spin 3/2 fermions?

Can the physics complications of introducing spin 3/2 Rarita-Schwinger matter be put in geometric (or other) terms readily accessible to a mathematician?
Chet Marone's user avatar
15 votes
1 answer
6k views

Why is there extra minus sign in Feynman's rules for every closed fermionic loop?

I know this is connected to the fact that fermions are represented by anticommuting operators, but I still cannot find the way to get this minus in Feynman rules.
Newman's user avatar
  • 2,586
14 votes
1 answer
2k views

What is the value of a quantum field?

As far as I'm aware (please correct me if I'm wrong) quantum fields are simply operators, constructed from a linear combination of creation and annihilation operators, which are defined at every point ...
Siraj R Khan's user avatar
  • 1,978

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