I'm running into an annoying problem I am unable to resolve, although a friend has given me some guidance as to how the resolution might come about. Hopefully someone on here knows the answer.
It is known that a superfunction (as a function of space-time and Grassmann coordinates) is to be viewed as an analytic series in the Grassmann variables which terminates. e.g. with two Grassmann coordinates $\theta$ and $\theta^*$, the expansion for the superfunction $F(x,\theta,\theta^*)$ is
$$F(x,\theta)=f(x)+g(x)\theta+h(x)\theta^*+q(x)\theta^*\theta.$$
The product of two Grassmann-valued quatities is a commuting number e.g. $\theta^*\theta$ is a commuting object. One confusion my friend cleared up for me is that this product need not be real or complex-valued, but rather, some element of a 'ring' (I don't know what that really means, but whatever). Otherwise, from $(\theta^*\theta)(\theta^*\theta)=0$, I would conclude necessarily $\theta^*\theta=0$ unless that product is in that ring.
But now I'm superconfused (excuse the pun). If Dirac fields $\psi$ and $\bar\psi$ appearing the QED Lagrangian $$\mathcal{L}=\bar\psi(i\gamma^\mu D_\mu-m)\psi-\frac{1}{4}F_{\mu\nu}F^{\mu\nu}$$ are anticommuting (Grassmann-valued) objects, whose product need not be real/complex-valued, then is the Lagrangian no longer a real-valued quantity, but rather takes a value which belongs in my friend's ring??? I refuse to believe that!!