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A question that has been nagging me for a long time regarding counterpoint is the idea of avoiding "2 quarters at the beginning of the measure as the melody tends to lag." as per Johann Fux. He explains one way to fix this is to use a tie or use more quarters. I understand this, because the 2 quarters emphasize the weak beat too much. Here's an example in 4/4: image.png

You also see composers applying the same principle to smaller divisions:

enter image description here

Still the point is understood for me here. Here's the examples where I get confused: Here from a time signature used often by Palestrina:

enter image description here

In many cases, no tie is used. The half notes here mimic quarter notes in the 4/4 time signature. Now Fux says that when it comes to counterpoint, it doesn't matter what note values are used. He says he uses whole notes in 1st species i.e. for clarity's sake, but 1 to 1 counterpoint could also use any note value. So, I believe Fux says verbatim, 2 quarters in the beginning of a measure cause the melody to lag (unless fixed by a tie or the use of more quarters.)

Now, is he actually saying: whenever you use 2 notes (relative quarters) in the beginning of a 4 beat relationship, this should be fixed with a tie or otherwise? You can see this is the case with the eighth notes in the 2nd example.

Or, does the measure itself contain certain metrical properties regardless of the notes used? For example, you see this sometimes:

enter image description here

This I've seen in Palestrina also. Here you have the "2 quarters at the beginning of the measure," but now you have divided notes in the bass. To me, if looking at this from a strict note to note perspective, this seems like 2nd species to me, 2 to 1 counterpoint, where the 2:1 is the 2 quarters at the beginning where the 4:1 is "cancelled out" when there is a change of bass (back to first species.) This last example makes me feel like the meter itself contains its own metric properties regardless of notes used, yet the example in the 4/2 time signature seems to contradict this.

Finally, for the sake of clarity, here is a carbon copy of the last example with double duration and different time signature:

enter image description here

It looks different here doesn't it? And, you don't see, at least from what I've looked at, Palestrina jumping through hoops to correct half notes in this way, although theoretically the notes value shouldn't matter and only matter from a relative perspective.

I know this was long winded, but I think this point is made. Does anyone have any insight into this. Thanks in advance.

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  • I only read hastily: Is the question "Does Palestrina violate a rule laid out by Fux?" If so, hardly surprising, as he was about a century earlier... Commented Jan 29 at 17:45
  • I understand what you're saying. And true. However, I am still trying to get my head around the rule itself. Commented Jan 29 at 17:46

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