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$$\begin{aligned} &\frac{(\frac{1}{x^2}+x)(\frac{1}{x^2}-x)}{1-x^6} \\ &= \frac{(\frac{1}{x^2}+x)(\frac{1}{x^2}-x)}{1-x^6} (\frac{x^2}{x^2}) \\ &= \frac{(1+x^3)(1-x^3)}{x^2(1-x^6)} \\ &= \frac{1-x^6}{x^2(1-x^6)} \\ &= \frac{1}{x^2} \end{aligned} $$

Hello, can somebody help me understand why this method doesn't give the correct answer? The correct answer is $\frac{1}{x^4}$ and I am able to produce the correct answer if I multiply the two $x$'s in the numerator by $\frac{x^2}{x^2}$ instead of multiplying the big overall fraction by $\frac{x^2}{x^2}$ as shown above. I also know that I am able to get the correct answer if I FOIL out the numerator before multiplying by $\frac{x^4}{x^4}$ (since the new denominator in the numerator becomes $x^4$), but why can I not get the right answer if I multiply by $\frac{x^2}{x^2}$ right off the bat?

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because you multiplied two times instead of one. to get the numerator you got, you'd need to multiply by $x^4$.

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The problem is that, when you distribute the $x^2$ into both the numerator and the denominator, you add an $x^2$ in each factor on the numerator. You are essentially multiplying the numerator by $x^4$ but the denominator by $x^2$. This is why your final answer is off by a factor of $x^2$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for the explanation. This makes sense. Does this mean I should make sure to FOIL out the numerator first in the future to avoid this issue? Is that how these types of problems are supposed to be solved? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 11, 2023 at 22:56
  • $\begingroup$ @TurtlesAreCool A reasonable way to solve it is the "multiply by $x^4$" approach you suggested. You figure out what factor you need to multiply the numerator by to get rid of fractions there, and then you multiply both the numerator and denominator by this factor. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 11, 2023 at 23:14

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