$\def\bbR{\mathbb{R}} \def\bbQ{\mathbb{Q}}$The comment from Vladimir Sotirov in March 2022 in this answer could be interpreted as suggesting the possibility that every ring homomorphism between $\bbR$-algebras must be $\bbR$-linear. But is this true? From the comment, it seems that this would be a consequence of the fact that the unique ring endomorphism of $\bbR$ is the identity (here is a proof of the fact).
Here are my thoughts: If $A,B$ are non-zero real algebras and $f:A\to B$ is a ring homomorphism, then, from the fact that $f(1)=1$, we can conclude that $f$ is $\bbQ$-linear. On the other hand, let $\alpha:\bbR\to A$ and $\beta:\bbR\to B$ be the structure morphisms. If we knew that $f(\alpha(\bbR))\subset \beta(\bbR)$, then the composite ring homomorphism $\bbR\xrightarrow{\alpha}\alpha(\bbR)\xrightarrow{f}\beta(\bbR)\xrightarrow{\beta^{-1}}\bbR$ would be the identity, and so, $f$ would be $\bbR$-linear. But is $f(\alpha(\bbR))\subset \beta(\bbR)$ always true? How one does one see this?