A homomorphism between two algebras is described here. I want to describe a homomorphism $f:A[x_1,x_2,\dots,x_n]\to R$, where $R$ is an A-algebra. $A$ is a ring.
Obviously, $A[x_1,x_2,\dots,x_n]$ is an A-algebra.
The article says that if $A$ and $B$ are two algebras over $K$, and $k\in K$ and $x,y\in A$ then $$f(kx)=kf(x)....(1)$$ $$f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y).....(2)$$ $$f(xy)=f(x)f(y).....(3)$$
Here, let us assume $s_{1},s_{2}\in A[x_1,x_2,\dots,x_n]$. $$f(s_{1}+s_{2})=f(s_{1})+f(s_{2}).....(3)$$ seems fine. What about (1) and (3) though? Is the following the correct interpretaton of the rule:
If $m,n\in A[x_1,x_2,\dots,x_n]\setminus A$, then $$f(mn)=f(m)f(n)$$
If $x\in A,y\in A[x_1,x_2,\dots,x_n]$, then $$f(xy)=xf(y)$$
If $p,q\in A\subset A[x_1,x_2,\dots,x_n]$, then $f(pq)$ is not defined.
I'm really getting confused here. Thanks in advance for your time!