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Consider the definition of small o in probability.

Let $X_n$ be a sequence of random variables and let $X_n=1+o_p(1)$. That is, for any $\delta,\epsilon>0: P(\lvert X_n-1\rvert\geq \delta)\leq \epsilon$ for sufficiently large $n$. The sequence converges in probability to one.

This led me to conjecture that there should be a constant $1>M>0$ so that $P(\lvert X_n\rvert\geq M)\to1$ as $n\to+\infty$. Or equivalently, $P(\lvert X_n\rvert < M)\to 0$ .

Question. If it is true, then how to prove it?

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  • $\begingroup$ You’re asking whether convergence in probability to $1$ implies convergence in distribution to $1$. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 24, 2021 at 14:34

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For any $\epsilon>0$, $$ \mathsf{P}(|X_n-1|\le \epsilon)=\mathsf{P}(1-\epsilon\le X_n\le 1+\epsilon)\to 1 $$ as $n\to\infty$, which implies that for any $M<1$, $$ \mathsf{P}(|X_n| \ge M)\ge \mathsf{P}(X_n \ge M)\to 1. $$

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  • $\begingroup$ Wait, can you explain me the last line? why the first expression implies the second? $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 24, 2021 at 15:35
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    $\begingroup$ Ok, as $\epsilon$ is arbitrary, any $M<1$ works. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 24, 2021 at 15:47
  • $\begingroup$ @CelineHarumi That's correct. You can also notice that $F_{X_n}(x)$ converges to $1_{[1,\infty)}(x)$, which leads to the same conclusion: any $M<1$ works. $\endgroup$
    – user140541
    Commented Dec 24, 2021 at 15:55

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