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Timeline for asymptotic order in probability

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

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Dec 24, 2021 at 15:55 comment added user140541 @CelineHarumi That's correct. You can also notice that $F_{X_n}(x)$ converges to $1_{[1,\infty)}(x)$, which leads to the same conclusion: any $M<1$ works.
Dec 24, 2021 at 15:47 comment added Celine Harumi Ok, as $\epsilon$ is arbitrary, any $M<1$ works.
Dec 24, 2021 at 15:35 comment added Celine Harumi Wait, can you explain me the last line? why the first expression implies the second?
Dec 24, 2021 at 14:45 vote accept Celine Harumi
Dec 24, 2021 at 14:34 history answered user140541 CC BY-SA 4.0