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Take $R,n\in \mathbb Z$ and $p$ a prime. The congruence

\[ x^n \equiv R\text { mod }(p)\]

has $\ll _n1$ solutions $x\in \{ 0,1,...,p-1\} $ by Lagrange's Theorem.

Is the same true if I replace $p$ by an arbitrary prime power? As far as I can tell - yes, because of the following argument.

CLAIM:

For all $\alpha \geq 1$ the congruence

\[ x^n \equiv R\text { mod }(p^\alpha )\]

has $\ll _n1$ solutions modulo $(p^\alpha )$.

PROOF OF CLAIM:

Let's suppose there's $\ll _n1$ solutions to the congruence modulo $p^{\alpha -1}$, for some $\alpha \geq 1$, and argue with induction.

Recall Hensel's Lemma, which says that if

\[ x^n \equiv R\text { mod }(p^{\alpha -1})\]

has a solution $X^{'}_0$ then there's a unique solution $X_0$ mod $(p^\alpha )$ to

\[ x^n \equiv R\text { mod }(p^{\alpha })\hspace {5mm}\text { satisfying }\hspace {5mm}X_0\equiv X{'}_0\text { mod }(p^{\alpha -1}).\]

Suppose the solutions to the congruence modulo $(p^{\alpha -1})$ are given by $\{ x_1,...x_N\} $, where $N\ll _n1$ by the inductive hypothesis. If we have a solution $X_0$ to the congruence mod $(p^\alpha )$ then necessarily $X_0$ is a solution to the congruence mod $(p^{\alpha -1})$ and therefore

\[ X_0\equiv x_i\text { mod }(p^{\alpha -1}).\hspace {10mm}(1)\]

But Hensel's lemma says that $X_0$, being a solution to the congruence mod $(p^\alpha )$ and satisfying (1), is unique modulo $p^\alpha $. Therefore there is only one choice for $X_0$, given (1), and (1) is in turn one of $N$ possible congruences. So there's only $N\ll _n1$ possibles choices for $X_0$, and we're done.

I've just remembered I've forgotten the differntiability condition for Hensel's Lemma, so let's suppose $p$ doesn't divide $n$. Then is the argument right? I basically just want to check.

Thanks!

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  • $\begingroup$ What do you mean by "...has $\ll _n1$ solutions..."? $\endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Commented Sep 20, 2020 at 18:16
  • $\begingroup$ independent of $p,\alpha $ $\endgroup$
    – tomos
    Commented Sep 20, 2020 at 18:19
  • $\begingroup$ I still don't understand what you mean by that symbol, or that sentence. $\endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Commented Sep 20, 2020 at 18:20
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    $\begingroup$ sorry, i mean: If in context we have variables $v_1,...,v_n,u_1,...,u_m$ and functions $f,g$ with $g$ positive, then $f(v_1,...,v_n)\ll _{u_1,...,u_m}g(v_1,...,v_n)$ means $|f(v_1,...,v_n)|\leq C_{u_1,...,u_m}g(v_1,...,v_n)$ for some positive constant $C$ independent of $v_1,...,v_n$ but dependent possibly on $u_1,...,u_m$ $\endgroup$
    – tomos
    Commented Sep 20, 2020 at 18:25
  • $\begingroup$ So when you say that the number $N(n,p^{\alpha},R)$ of solutions to the congruence $$x^n\equiv R\pmod{p^\alpha},$$ satisfies $N(n,p^{\alpha},R)\ll_n1$, you mean to say that $$N(n,p^{\alpha},R)\leq C(n),$$ for some function depending only on $n$? $\endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Commented Sep 20, 2020 at 18:37

1 Answer 1

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If $n,\alpha>1$ then for every integer $k$ the congruence class of $kp^{\alpha-1}$ is a solution to the congruence $$x^n\equiv0\pmod{p^{\alpha}},$$ so there are at least $p$ solutions. In particular the number of solutions is not bounded by any function of $n$.

Your argument fails because it fails to consider the differentiability condition of Hensel's lemma: The lemma requires that $$(X_0')^n\equiv R\pmod{p^{\alpha-1}} \qquad\text{ and }\qquad n(X_0')^{n-1}\not\equiv0\pmod{p}.$$ So the lemma, and hence your argument, works only if both $n$ and $R$ are coprime to $p$.

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  • $\begingroup$ thanks! overlooked $(R,p)=1$ (the argument then works, though, right?) $\endgroup$
    – tomos
    Commented Sep 23, 2020 at 9:35
  • $\begingroup$ Anyone care to explain the downvote? $\endgroup$
    – Servaes
    Commented Jan 19 at 4:56

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