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23 votes

Is the variance of the mean of a set of possibly dependent random variables less than the average of their respective variances?

Yes, it is true. Here is a proof. $$ \begin{align} \newcommand{\Var}{\operatorname{Var}} &\Var(\overline{X}) \\ &= \frac1{n^2}\Var\left(\sum_{i=1}^n X_i\right) \\ &=\frac1{n^2}\sum_{i=1}^n\...
Mike Earnest's user avatar
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14 votes
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Is the variance of the mean of a set of possibly dependent random variables less than the average of their respective variances?

In general, one has : $$ \begin{align} \operatorname{Var}\left(\sum_{k=0}^n X_k\right) &= \sum_{i,j=0}^n \operatorname{Cov}(X_i,X_j) \end{align} $$ Now, the well-known inequality $ab \le \frac{...
Abezhiko's user avatar
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13 votes

Is the variance of the mean of a set of possibly dependent random variables less than the average of their respective variances?

A way to see this at a glance is that real random variables form an inner product space, with $\langle X,Y \rangle = \mathbb{E}XY$. The norm induced by this inner product is $\|X\|^2=\mathbb{E}X^2$, ...
Zoe Allen's user avatar
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4 votes

Is the variance of the mean of a set of possibly dependent random variables less than the average of their respective variances?

$$\text{Var}\left(\sum X_i\right) = \sum\limits_i \text{Var}\left( X_i\right) +\sum\limits_i \sum\limits_{j\not=i} \text{Cov}\left( X_i,X_j\right)$$ is maximised when the covariances take their ...
Henry's user avatar
  • 159k
1 vote

Confusion in using applying variance formula

The variance of a sum of independent random variables $X$ and $Y$ is the sum of their variances; i.e., $$\operatorname{Var}[X+Y] \overset{\text{ind}}{=} \operatorname{Var}[X] + \operatorname{Var}[Y],$$...
heropup's user avatar
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