This is a problem I came across on another exam. It is as follows:
Let $(an)_{n\in\mathbb{N}^*}$ a sequence such that $a_1=1$ and for all $n\geq 2$, $a_n=a_1\cdot...\cdot a_{n-1}+1$. Find the real number $M$ such that $\sum_{n=1}^{m}\frac{1}{a_n}<M$.
Apparently, $M$ has a "nice" value.
I begin by noticing a pattern in the sequence.
$$a_1=1$$
$$a_2=a_1+1=2$$
$$a_3=a_1\cdot a_2+1=3$$
$$a_4=a_1 \cdot a_2 \cdot a_3 +1=7$$
$$a_5=a_1 \cdot a_2 \cdot a_3 \cdot a_4 +1=43$$
$$....$$
We can also observe that:
$$\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}=\frac{a_1 \cdot a_2 ...\cdot a_n +1}{a_n}$$
$$\frac{a_1 \cdot a_2 ...\cdot a_n}{a_n}+\frac{1}{a_n}$$
$$\frac{(a_n)^2-a_n}{a_n}+\frac{1}{a_n}$$
$$\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}=a_n-1 + \frac{1}{a_n}$$
However this doesn't really seem too helpful.
I also attempted to substitute the values directly into the summation:
$$\sum_{n=1}^{m}\frac{1}{a_n}=1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{7}...+\frac{1}{a_m}$$
However I'm not really sure how to proceed further and arrive at a "nice" value for M. Help would be appreciated!