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Let $k$ be a perfect field—it will be clear that we might as well take it algebraically closed—and $G$ an affine $k$-group scheme, not necessarily smooth.

A faithful representation $G \to \operatorname{GL}(V)$ gives rise to a map $\mathfrak g \to \mathfrak{gl}(V)$, via which we may speak of the Jordan decomposition in $\mathfrak{gl}(V)(k)$ of an element of $\mathfrak g(k)$.

Is it true that the semisimple and nilpotent parts of the Jordan decomposition actually lies in $\mathfrak g(k)$, and are independent of the representation? I checked in Demazure and Gabriel - Groupes algébriques - I, which doesn't seem to have it; and in Milne - Algebraic groups and Conrad - Algebraic groups over fields, which cover the Jordan decomposition only in the group (Section 9(b) and Section 13.1, respectively), where one doesn't see smoothness issues (since $G(k) = G_\text{smooth}(k)$).

This leads me to suspect that the Jordan decomposition might not behave well for Lie algebras—but I can't think of a counterexample, and the proof in Borel - Linear algebraic groups, where technically everything is assumed smooth, doesn't seem actually to use smoothness; in the notation there, it doesn't in any obvious way use that the ideal $J$ defining $G$ as a closed subscheme of $\operatorname{GL}(V)$ is reduced.

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  • $\begingroup$ For an affine $k$-group scheme $G:=Spec(A)$ we may define $G(k)$ to be the $k$-points of the affine scheme $G$. If $\mathfrak{g}:=Lie(G)$ is the Lie algebra of $G$ - what do you mean when you write $\mathfrak{g}(k)$? $\endgroup$
    – hm2020
    Commented Dec 31, 2022 at 16:23
  • $\begingroup$ @hm2020, re, $\operatorname{Lie}(G)$ is, or can be treated as, a group scheme like any other (in this case a vector group scheme); e.g., if $G = \operatorname{GL}_n$, then $\mathfrak g = \mathfrak{gl}_n$, so $\mathfrak g(k) = \mathfrak{gl}_n(k)$. Many people use $\mathfrak g$ for what I call $\mathfrak g(k)$, and use some other decoration for the vector group scheme. If it bothers you and you believe it's so abnormal as to be likely to confuse others, then feel free to edit. $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Dec 31, 2022 at 16:30
  • $\begingroup$ what is the precise definition of $\mathfrak{g}(k)$ and where is this studied? If $G$ is a group scheme some authors define $Lie(G)$ using left invariant derivations of the Hopf algebra $A$ (over the base ring $k$). Some authors define it as $Der_k(A,\kappa(e))$ where $e$ is the identity. What is $Lie(G)(k)$ in these situations? $\endgroup$
    – hm2020
    Commented Jan 1, 2023 at 9:45
  • $\begingroup$ @hm2020, re$\DeclareMathOperator\Lie{Lie}$, obviously you are familiar with definitions of the Lie algebra and know where they are studied. Whereas many authors write $\Lie(G)$ for the Lie algebra, I write $\Lie(G)(k)$ for the very same Lie algebra, defined however you please (as you say, in terms of derivations is fine; or I like $\ker(G(k[\epsilon])) \to G(k))$), and $\operatorname{Lie}(G)$ for the resulting vector-group $A \mapsto \Lie(G)(k) \otimes_k A$. It is just different notation for the same object you know. $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Jan 1, 2023 at 11:38

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I agree with you that the argument in Borel doesn't seem to require smoothness of $G$. Anyway, the Jordan decomposition does work well, and I'll explain a different proof. I will assume that $G$ is of finite type (so there actually is an embedding into $\mathrm{GL}(V)$ for some $V$) over an algebraically closed field $k$, and for brevity I will write $\mathfrak{g}$ for the Lie algebra of $G$ (instead of $\mathfrak{g}(k)$).

In characteristic $0$, all finite type group schemes are smooth, so the result follows from your references. For the rest of this answer, assume the characteristic of $k$ is $p > 0$. Note that any embedding $G \to \mathrm{GL}(V)$ gives rise to an embedding $\mathfrak{g} \to \mathfrak{gl}(V)$ of restricted Lie algebras, so the question reduces to asking whether there is a well-defined notion of Jordan decomposition for restricted Lie algebras. (In fact, these questions are equivalent: in the original question, one easily reduces to the case that $G$ is killed by Frobenius, and in that case $k$-homomorphisms $G \to H$ are equivalent to maps $\mathfrak{g} \to \mathfrak{h}$ of restricted Lie algebras by SGA3, Exposé VII$_\text{A}$, Théorème 8.1.2.) This is proved in Farnsteiner--Strade, 2.3, Theorem 3.5, but the proof is simple enough to give here.

In $\mathfrak{gl}(V)$, the $p$-operation is just the $p$-power on matrices, so nilpotence of $X$ is equivalent to the statement that $X^{p^n} = 0$ for large $n$. If $X \in \mathfrak{gl}(V)$ has Jordan decomposition $X = T + U$, then it follows that $X^{p^n} = T^{p^n}$ for all sufficiently large $n$, say $n \geq N$. In particular, if $X \in \mathfrak{g}$ (under a fixed choice of embedding $\mathfrak{g} \subset \mathfrak{gl}(V)$), then $T^{p^n} \in \mathfrak{g}$ for $n \geq N$. Thus, to show $T \in \mathfrak{g}$ it suffices to show that $T$ lies in the $k$-span of $\{T^{p^n}\}_{n \geq N}$. Indeed, by induction it suffices to take $N = 1$. After passing to a conjugate, we can assume $T$ is diagonal. Since $\mathfrak{gl}(V)$ is finite-dimensional, there exists a linear dependence $\sum_{n=0}^m \alpha_n T^{p^n} = 0$. Since $k$ is perfect and $T$ is diagonal, we can take $p$th roots and scale to assume $\alpha_0 = 1$, which proves the claim. Since $T \in \mathfrak{g}$, also $U \in \mathfrak{g}$.

Moreover, the argument above shows that an element $T \in \mathfrak{g}$ is semisimple if and only if $T$ lies in the $k$-span of $\{T^{p^n}\}_{n \geq N}$ for all $N$. Moreover, the element $U$ can be characterized as the unique $p$-nilpotent element of the affine space $\bigcap_{N \geq 1} X + \mathrm{span}_k(\{X^{p^n}\}_{n \geq N})$, and this is independent of any embedding into $\mathfrak{gl}(V)$. This establishes the result.

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  • $\begingroup$ A lovely argument—thank you! $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented May 2 at 18:44

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