How to show that
$$\int_0^1\frac{\ln^2(1+x)+2\ln(x)\ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx=\frac{5\pi^3}{64}+\frac{\pi}{16}\ln^2(2)-4\,\text{G}\ln(2)$$
without breaking up the integrand since we already know:
$$\int_0^1\frac{\ln^2(1+x)}{1+x^2}dx=4\,\mathfrak{J}\operatorname{Li}_3(1+i)-\frac{7\pi^3}{64}-\frac{3\pi}{16}\ln^2(2)-2\,\text{G}\ln(2)$$
and
$$\int_0^1\frac{\ln(x)\ln(1+x^2)}{1+x^2}dx=-2\,\Im\operatorname{Li_3}(1+i)+\frac{3\pi^3}{32}+\frac{\pi}8\ln^2(2)-\text{G}\ln(2).$$
We can see that the imaginary parts got cancelled out leaving us only a real value and this fact pushed me to propose such a question. I tried integration by parts and subbing $x\to (1-x)/(1+x)$ but no use.
The two integrals are given in (here) and (here) respectively.