1
$\begingroup$

(This question is related to my previous question: When drawing 14 cards from a set of 52 cards, is it more likely to have a full house or two consecutive pairs?).

Problem: What is the probability for a 14-card hand drawn from a 52-card deck to contain at least one full house?

Based on the very nice and verbose answer I received for the two consecutive pairs I approached the problem in a similar way:

Let $a_k$ denote the number of ways to draw at least 3 cards of one particular rank and at least 2 cards of $k-1$ particular other ranks, then

$$a_k=\sum_{i_1=3}^4\sum_{i_2=2}^4\cdots\sum_{i_k=2}^4\binom4{i_1}\cdots\binom4{i_k}\binom{52-4k}{14-i_1-\cdots-i_k} $$

Computing the values with Sage gives the following results:

\begin{array}{r|r} k&a_k\\\hline 2&21227073582\\ 3&3670707300\\ 4&455417394\\ 5&33893088\\ 6&982368 \end{array}

For every particular $k$ ranks that I choose there are $13$ ways of selecting the rank with at least 3 cards drawn from it and $12\choose k-1$ ways of selecting the $k-1$ remaining ranks. Using the inclusion-exclusion principle I came up with this expression:

$$ \sum_{k=2}^6(-1)^{k}13\binom{12}{k-1}a_{k} = 1246348340952 $$

The probability for having a full-house amongst 14 randomly drawn cards from a 52-card deck, would therefore be:

$$ \frac{1246348340952}{\binom{52}{14}}\approx70.456306\% $$

So, now my question is, whether I applied the inclusion-exclusion principle correctly. I somehow have the feeling that I am still counting certain events twice, by distinguishing between the rank of which at least 3 cards have been drawn and the ranks from which at least two cards have been drawn, since e.g. selecting one particular rank $A$ from which at least 3 cards have been drawn and another rank $B$ from which at least 2 cards have been drawn overlap in the cases, where 3 or more cards have been drawn from rank $B$ as well. I just find it very hard to picture, how all these events overlap, and to verify my answer.

Can anybody give my some advice on how to check the correct use of the inclusion-exclusion principle for this and maybe comparable problems I might try to solve in the future?

$\endgroup$
6
  • $\begingroup$ The probability is $\frac{1024024781208}{\binom{52}{14}}\approx 57.888313%$. I'll see if I can spot your error. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 29, 2020 at 12:34
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ How did you come up with that answer? Did you also use inclusion-exclusion? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 29, 2020 at 12:40
  • $\begingroup$ @greg.: I get the same count of $1024024781208$ by enumeration (using this Java code). Your doubts about your treatment of the $3$-card rank are right. I'll think about how this can be done properly; I think it's a bit more difficult than the other one. $\endgroup$
    – joriki
    Commented Mar 29, 2020 at 12:45
  • $\begingroup$ That result is from enumeration via code, similar to the Java code joriki used to confirm the result for consecutive pairs. (Speaking of...) $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 29, 2020 at 12:46
  • $\begingroup$ @joriki: Where did you get the Binomials and BallsInBins classes used in you code from? Can you make them available? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 29, 2020 at 14:11

2 Answers 2

1
$\begingroup$

For this, we have two cases. In the first case we have at least three cards in each of at least two ranks. This is similar to what you have already done, so I'll leave out the details. The result should be $219349055640$.

In the second case we have at least three cards in exactly one rank and exactly two cards in at least one other rank.

$$13\binom{4}{4}\sum_{k=1}^5\left(\binom{12}{k}\binom{4}{2}^k\binom{12-k}{10-2k}\binom{4}{1}^{10-2k}\right)\\+13\binom{4}{3}\sum_{k=1}^5\left(\binom{12}{k}\binom{4}{2}^k\binom{12-k}{11-2k}\binom{4}{1}^{11-2k}\right)\\=804675725568$$

For the total of $$\begin{align}219349055640&\\804675725568&\\=1024024781208&\end{align}$$

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ Did it really take me half an hour to write that? Text editing on mobile is soooo slow... $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 29, 2020 at 14:50
  • $\begingroup$ Nice. I really like this solution. It seems to be more straight forward than the other one, so I give you the credit ;) .. but thanks to both of you anyway. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 29, 2020 at 15:07
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ @greg.: Not to argue with that decision :-) but it's perhaps worth mentioning that the first case requires more than has been written up in either answer so far. You can use a generalized inclusion–exclusion principle to get the number of hands with at least three cards in each of at least two ranks from the number of hands with at least three cards in each of $k$ particular ranks. If $k$ particular conditions can be fulfilled in $a_k$ ways, the number of ways to fulfill at least $j$ of these conditions is $$ \sum_{k=j}^n(-1)^{k-j}\binom{k-1}{j-1}a_k\;. $$ (In this case $j=2$.) $\endgroup$
    – joriki
    Commented Mar 29, 2020 at 15:29
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ (Of course alternatively you can calculate the number of hands with at least three cards in exactly $k$ ranks, as in my answer, and add that up for $k\ge2$.) $\endgroup$
    – joriki
    Commented Mar 29, 2020 at 15:31
1
$\begingroup$

I think this calculation is perhaps best carried out as follows:

First find the number $a_k$ of hands that have at least $3$ cards of each of $k$ particular ranks:

$$ a_k=\sum_{i_1=3}^4\cdots\sum_{i_k=3}^4\binom4{i_1}\cdots\binom4{i_k}\binom{52-4k}{14-i_1-\cdots-i_k}\;. $$

The results are

\begin{array}{r|r} k&a_k\\\hline 0&1768966344600\\ 1&96921517368\\ 2&3149345628\\ 3&46618572\\ 4&170592\\ \end{array}

Then by inclusion–exclusion the number of hands that don’t have at least $3$ cards in any rank is

$$ \sum_{k=0}^4(-1)^k\binom{13}ka_k=741424639488\;. $$

Of the remaining hands that have at least $3$ cards in at least $1$ rank, the only ones that don’t contain a full house are the ones with $3$ or $4$ cards in exactly $1$ rank and the remaining $11$ or $10$ cards spread out over the remaining $12$ ranks; and those are easily counted. So the number of hands with a full house is

$$ \binom{52}{14}-741424639488-\binom{13}1\binom43\binom{12}{11}\binom41^{11}-\binom{13}1\binom44\binom{12}{10}\binom41^{10}=1024024781208 $$

and the probability to draw a full house is

$$ \frac{1024024781208}{\binom{52}{14}}=\frac{3282130709}{5669763925}\approx57.888\%\;, $$

in agreement with the computer results.

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Very nice and systematic answer. Thank you. I should start verifying my results by comparing it to computational results using enumeration as well (thanks for the classes!). So, in the end this problem was actually easier than the one before I reckon, but finding the right approach is - as often - the challenge. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 29, 2020 at 14:49

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .