So I know this can be solved easily by counting the total ways to make a full house and dividing that by the total possible hands, but I want to know why another way I thought of to solve it is wrong.
My calculation is: $$1 \times \frac{3}{51} \times \frac{2}{50} \times \frac{48}{49} \times \frac{3}{48} \times 5!$$
To break this down, the first card can be any. The second card must be the same number as the first ($\frac{3}{51}$) and the third card must also be the same number ($\frac{2}{50}$). The fourth card can be any from the deck with the exception of whatever card makes a 4-of-a-kind ($\frac{48}{49}$). And the fifth card must be the same number as the fourth card ($\frac{3}{48}$).
Since order should not matter for a hand of cards, I multiply this probability by $5!$.
I can't figure out where I went wrong, but evidently this does not give me the correct answer. Can anyone help me find my error?