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17
votes
A reason for $ 64\int_0^1 \left(\frac \pi 4+\arctan t\right)^2\cdot \log t\cdot\frac 1{1-t^2}\; dt =-\pi^4$ ...
real-analysis
integration
complex-analysis
definite-integrals
polylogarithm
asked Nov 13, 2020 at 14:19
math.stackexchange.com
Top Answers
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