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Field strength tensor written as commutator of covariant derivatives in QED

Your mistake is after the third line of your equations. Bear in mind that the operators in $(...)$ act on the $\psi$ on the right, and then apply the product rule carefully. $$\begin{align} &... \\...
Thomas Fritsch's user avatar
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Field strength tensor written as commutator of covariant derivatives in QED

Just use the product rule of differentiation to evaluate commutators: $$ [\partial_\mu,f(x)]=\partial_\mu f(x)-f(x)\partial_\mu=(\partial_\mu f(x))+f(x)\partial_\mu-f(x)\partial_\mu=(\partial_\mu f(x))...
dennismoore94's user avatar
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Field strength tensor written as commutator of covariant derivatives in QED

The derivative operators in the second commutator in the second line of Eq. 1 1/2 also act on the wave function via the chain rule. This cancels the third commutator.
my2cts's user avatar
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Independence of $S$-matrix of $\xi$-gauge in QED

As far as I know, the rigorous proof of the LSZ formula fails in QED because of the photon cloud. Nevertheless, it still seems to work! We just have to physically assume that at $t\to\pm\infty$ the ...
Gabriel Ybarra Marcaida's user avatar
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How to expand $(D_\mu\Phi)^\dagger(D^\mu\Phi)$ in $SU(2)$?

You appear to not appreciate your expression as a row vector dotted on a column vector (possibly sandwiching operators). I corrected your expression to $$\partial_\mu\Phi^\dagger \partial^\mu \Phi - \...
Cosmas Zachos's user avatar
4 votes

Gauge theory of Electomagnetic Potentials - 2nd order derivatives

The Gauge fixing condition must be (1) accessible (This is addressed in Gabriel's answer), and (2) it must uniquely fix the gauge. In E&M one way to see that you get the gauge degree of freedom is ...
Josh Newey's user avatar
1 vote

Gauge theory of Electomagnetic Potentials - 2nd order derivatives

This is only a partial answer to your question. What you say about X and Y being linear is not necessarily true, as I have seen other guage choices like the Weul gauge, $A_t=0$, used in QFT, or the ...
Gabriel Ybarra Marcaida's user avatar
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Gauge transformation rule for $dA$, where $A$ is the gauge field

Given $$ A \to g A g^{-1} - i dg g^{-1} $$ where $A$ is the gauge field one-form $A = A_{\alpha \mu} t^\alpha dx^\mu$ and $d$ is exterior derivative, thus $$ dA\\ \to d(g A g^{-1} - i dg g^{-1}) \\...
MadMax's user avatar
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What kind of object is a function in the context of gauge theory?

The terminology used in physics texts is often a bit imprecise, and thus the word "scalar" is somewhat ambiguous. Often if a function $\phi(x)$ of the coordinates is a "scalar", it ...
Bence Racskó's user avatar
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Writing gauge transformation of the gauge fields explicitly in terms of coordinates

Assume a field $\psi(x)$ transforming with respect to some arbitrary representation $$U(x)=e^{-i \alpha_a(x) T_a}, \qquad [T_a,T_b]= i f_{abc}T_c$$ of your gauge group. Defining the matrix-valued ...
Hyperon's user avatar
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Writing gauge transformation of the gauge fields explicitly in terms of coordinates

Your derivative term should be $$ (\partial_\mu g) g^{-1}. $$ This combination is an element of the Lie algebra,and so expressible as a sum of the $t^\alpha$, unlike the group element $g$ itself. It'...
mike stone's user avatar
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Geometrical interpretation of gauge fields of spin other than 2

``Geometry'' is a very vague term. The usual gauge theories (Yang-Mills theory) is about connections on vector bundles, see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gauge_theory_(mathematics). If you include ...
John's user avatar
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2+1-dimensional $SU(N)$ Yang-Mills Theory

From the point of view of perturbation theory, QCD in lower dimensions is essentially identical to QCD in $d=3+1$. Namely, the beta function is negative, which means that the theory is UV complete, ...
AccidentalFourierTransform's user avatar
2 votes

Causality for gauge dependent operators in quantum field theories

Correct. As an example of how causality cannot be imposed on the electromagnetic potentials, consider the Coulomb gauge. In this gauge the propagation is instantaneous.
my2cts's user avatar
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4 votes

Why are there no Goldstone modes in superconductor?

A neutral fermionic superluid has gapless soundwaves that can be regarded as a Goldstone mode due to the spontaneous breakdown of translational symmetry, but the fluctuating quantity in the sound ...
mike stone's user avatar
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Why are there no Goldstone modes in superconductor?

The Goldstone modes of a superconductor (considered as an electron gas with attractive potential) are physically the oscillations of electron density. As electrons are intrinsically charged, this will ...
E. Anikin's user avatar
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1 vote

2+1-dimensional $SU(N)$ Yang-Mills Theory

Two-dimensional Yang-Mills is solvable non-perturbatively. Atiyah and Bott used equivariant cohomology to study the theory. The theory is topological and in the small-coupling regime it is classically ...
Simp's user avatar
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2+1-dimensional $SU(N)$ Yang-Mills Theory

I don't know much about the 3-dimensional case however, I can maybe provide some insight into the 1+1 dimensional version. In 1+1 dimensions the number of gauge constraints is high enough to go far ...
Thomas Tappeiner's user avatar
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How to find a covariant gauge derivative from a field transformation

I'll give the example for SU(N): Consider a field $\Phi$ in the fundamental representation of SU(N) which means that $\Phi \to U \Phi$, with $U \in SU(N)$. Now consider how its ordinary derivative ...
Guliano's user avatar
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