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18 votes
2 answers
3k views

Counting the number of propagating degrees of freedom in Lorenz Gauge Electrodynamics

How do I definitively show that there are only two propagating degrees of freedom in the Lorenz Gauge $\partial_\mu A^\mu=0$ in classical electrodynamics. I need an clear argument that involves the ...
QuantumDot's user avatar
  • 6,381
17 votes
3 answers
8k views

What is a gauge in a gauge theory?

As I study Jackson, I am getting really confused with some of its key definitions. Here is what I am getting confused at. When we substituted the electric field and magnetic field in terms of the ...
Roshan Shrestha's user avatar
10 votes
2 answers
3k views

Showing that Coulomb and Lorenz Gauges are indeed valid Gauge Transformations?

I'm working my way through Griffith's Introduction to Electrodynamics. In Ch. 10, gauge transformations are introduced. The author shows that, given any magnetic potential $\textbf{A}_0$ and electric ...
user56771's user avatar
  • 103
10 votes
1 answer
3k views

Gauge theory and eliminating unphysical degrees of freedom

In free space we can express Maxwell's equations as \begin{align} \varepsilon^{abcd}\partial_bF_{cd}=0 ~~\text{ and }~~ \partial_aF^{ab}=0 \tag{1} \end{align} where $F^{ab}=-F^{ba}$. The most general ...
SigmaAlpha's user avatar
5 votes
4 answers
1k views

Why does Lorenz gauge condition $\partial_\mu A^\mu =0$ pick exactly one configuration from each gauge equivalence class?

For a vector field $A_\mu$, there are infinitely many configurations that describe the same physical situation. This is a result of our gauge freedom $$ A_\mu (x_\mu) \to A'_\mu \equiv A_\mu (x_\mu) + ...
jak's user avatar
  • 10.1k
6 votes
2 answers
5k views

Landau level degeneracy in symmetry gauge, finite system

As we know, Landau level degeneracy in a finite rectangular system is $\Phi/\Phi_0$, where $\Phi=BS$ is the total magnetic flux and $\Phi_0=h/q$ is the flux quanta. This can be easily derived using ...
an offer can't refuse's user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
1k views

$R_\xi$ gauges and the EM-field

$R_\xi$-gauges are said to be a generalization of the Lorenz gauge. I dont quite get why we add the term $$ \mathcal L_{GF} = - \frac{(\partial_\mu A ^\mu)^2}{2\xi}\tag{1} $$ to the Lagrangian. If i ...
AlmostClueless's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
2k views

Gauge theory in classical electromagnetism

I understand gauge theory as the theory of continuous transformation group which keeps Lagrangian (or dynamics) invariant. So some integral invariants could be found. In terms of classical ...
Shuchang's user avatar
  • 458
2 votes
1 answer
1k views

Why is the electromagnetic four-potential $A_{\mu}$ not an observable?

Why within classical field-theory the electromagnetic four-potential (usually $A_{\mu}$) not an observable? In classical mechanics we don't have problems with energy measurements and in quantum ...
Thomas Elliot's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
286 views

Coulomb Gauge misunderstanding

If we have $\vec A(\vec r,t)$ and $\phi (\vec r,t)$ and we make the following gauge transformations: $$\vec A(\vec r,t)'= \vec A(\vec r,t) + \nabla f(\vec r,t)$$ $$\phi(\vec r,t)'=\phi(\vec r,t) - \...
imbAF's user avatar
  • 1,398
11 votes
2 answers
12k views

What is the physical meaning of Lorenz gauge condition? [closed]

What is the physical meaning of Lorenz gauge condition? And what part of the solutions we throw?
grodta's user avatar
  • 163
10 votes
2 answers
2k views

Question about physical degree of freedom in Maxwell Theory: Why Coulomb gauge can fix all redundant degree of freedom

Given $4$-potential $A^\mu(x)=(\phi(x),\mathbf{A}(x))$, the vacuum Maxwell equations: $$\nabla^2\phi+\frac{\partial}{\partial t}(\nabla\cdot \mathbf{A} )=0$$ $$\nabla^2 \mathbf{A} -\frac{\partial^2 \...
user avatar
9 votes
2 answers
884 views

Why the extra term $\frac{1}{2}(\partial_{\rho}A^{\rho})^2$ in the photon Lagrangian?

In my quantum field theory class we have been told to use this Lagrangian for the photon field $$\mathcal{L}=-\frac{1}{4}F_{\alpha\beta}F^{\alpha\beta} -\frac{1}{2}(\partial_{\rho}A^{\rho})^2.$$ but ...
Yossarian's user avatar
  • 6,067
6 votes
1 answer
1k views

Why does Coulomb gauge condition $\partial_i A_i =0$ pick exactly one configuration from each gauge equivalence class?

There are infinitely many configurations of a vector field $A_\mu$ that describe the same physical situation. This is a result of our gauge freedom $$ A_\mu (x_\mu) \to A'_\mu \equiv A_\mu (x_\mu) + \...
jak's user avatar
  • 10.1k
6 votes
1 answer
2k views

Why not use the Weyl/temporal gauge?

In E&M in Minkowski space, the Lorenz and Coulomb gauges are typically used since they make things vastly simpler. On a curved background, Maxwell's equations (without sources) can be written as: \...
Base's user avatar
  • 513

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