If we have $\vec A(\vec r,t)$ and $\phi (\vec r,t)$ and we make the following gauge transformations:
$$\vec A(\vec r,t)'= \vec A(\vec r,t) + \nabla f(\vec r,t)$$
$$\phi(\vec r,t)'=\phi(\vec r,t) - \frac{\partial f(\vec r,t)}{\partial t}.$$
Coulomb Gauge: When we say this condition must be fulfilled: $\nabla \vec A(\vec r,t)=0$ does this also imply:
$$\nabla \vec A(\vec r,t)'=0$$
In our notes we wrote:
$$\nabla \vec A(\vec r,t)'=\nabla [\vec A(\vec r,t) + \nabla f(\vec r,t)]=0$$
$$\nabla \vec A(\vec r,t)'=\nabla\vec A(\vec r,t) + \Delta f(\vec r,t)=0$$
Assuming $\nabla \vec A(\vec r,t)=g(\vec r,t)$
$$\nabla \vec A(\vec r,t)'= g(\vec r,t)+ \Delta f(\vec r,t)=0 \rightarrow \Delta f(\vec r,t)=-g(\vec r,t) $$
But I also have seen this:
$$\nabla \vec A(\vec r,t)'=\nabla\vec A(\vec r,t) + \Delta f(\vec r,t)$$
Intital condition: $$\nabla\vec A(\vec r,t)=0$$
Then $$\Delta f(\vec r,t)=0$$
So I am really confused. When we consider the following condition $\nabla \vec A=0$ do we assume that the initial NOT TRANSFORMED vector potential must satisfy this condition or the transformed vector potential $\vec A'$ ?
EDIT:
Or we could also have:
$$\nabla \vec A(\vec r,t)'=h(\vec r,t)$$
And in the end you would get for $\Delta f(\vec r,t)$:
- $\Delta f(\vec r,t)= h(\vec r,t)$ when you assume that $\nabla \vec A =0$
- $\Delta f(\vec r,t)= h(\vec r,t) - g(\vec r,t)$ when you assume that $\nabla \vec A = g(\vec r,t)$.
As I mentioned earlier, I am thoroughly confused about what is going on?