1
$\begingroup$

If we have several point charges $q_1, q_2, q_3, \cdots$, and their distances from a test charge $Q$ are respectively ${\imath}_1, {\imath}_2, {\imath}_3$, $\cdots$, then the electric field intensity at $Q$ is given by $E(r) \equiv \frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{q_i}{{\imath}_i^2} \hat{{\imath}}_i$

This equation can be written in integral form as: $E(r) = \frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} \int \frac{1}{\imath^2} \hat{\imath} dq$.

I don't quite understand why, when converting from the summation form $E(r) \equiv \frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_0} \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{q_i}{{\imath}_i^2} \hat{{\imath}}_i$ to the integral form, $q$ is chosen as the variable of integration. Both $q$ and ${\imath}$ have the subscript $i$, so why not choose ${\imath}$?

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ Suppose you have two of these point charges, say $q_7$ and $q_{23}$, that are both located at a distance of 3 cm from Q (but in different directions)... $\endgroup$
    – The Photon
    Commented May 27 at 14:14
  • $\begingroup$ what is that distance variable? Why not use $\vec r'$? $\endgroup$
    – JEB
    Commented May 27 at 15:36
  • $\begingroup$ @JEB The book I used is "Introduction to Electrodynamics" by David J. Griffiths, and the distance in it uses $\imath_1$ as the distance variable. It seems that next time when asking questions on this website, I should use more common symbols. $\endgroup$
    – guoxu
    Commented May 27 at 21:36
  • $\begingroup$ @shiguoxu yeah, I had grifth too, it's ayiat. But when I say what is that, I mean what is it? is it a little l or an I or i or a what? $\endgroup$
    – JEB
    Commented May 28 at 3:59

2 Answers 2

2
$\begingroup$

The idea is that you are breaking up a charge distribution into many small chunks, small enough so that each chunk can be treated as a point charge. We will then take the limit of more and more, smaller and smaller chunks, in which case the charge $q_i$ on each chunk goes to zero. The distances $\imath_i$ from source charge $q_i$ to the field point does not go to zero during this process. According to the meaning of an integral as a Riemann sum, this means that you have to take $q_i$ as your $dq_i$, and you can't use $\imath_i$.

$\endgroup$
1
$\begingroup$

I think the formula should be:

$$ \vec E(\vec r) = \frac 1 {4\pi\epsilon_0}\int_V \frac {\rho(\vec r')(\vec r' - \vec r)}{||\vec r - \vec r'||^3} d^3r' $$

where $\rho(\vec r)$ is the charge density distribution, which is contained in $V$.

Traditionally, $q$ is used for point charges, while $\lambda, \sigma, \rho$ are used for line, surface, volume densities, respectively.

Regarding the distance variable in your posted equation..I have no idea what that is. It is common to use $\vec r$ for affine points (positions in an arbitrary coordinate system), and $\vec r'$ for the dummy variable in the integral.

The resulting formula should be independent of origin, and depend only on the vector difference ($\vec r' - \vec r$) of affine points ($\vec r', \vec r$).

$\endgroup$

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.