Skip to main content

All Questions

2 votes
1 answer
127 views

Is the first-order theory of the class of well-ordered sets the same as the first-order theory of the class of ordinals?

Consider the class $K$ of well-ordered sets $(W,\leq)$. Although that class is not first-order axiomatizable, it has an associated first-order theory $Th(K)$. Now consider the class of ordinals $On$, ...
user107952's user avatar
  • 21.5k
2 votes
1 answer
64 views

non-wellordered linear order that doesn't contain a copy of $\omega^*$ in ZF?

Obviously a wellorder cannot contain a copy of $\omega^*$ (the dual order of $\omega$), and this can be proven in ZF. In ZFC, it is easy to prove any linear order which is not a wellorder does contain ...
Zoe Allen's user avatar
  • 5,671
1 vote
1 answer
49 views

Is the class of well-ordered sets a pseudo-elementary class? [closed]

I know that the class of well-ordered sets is not an elementary class. But, is it at least a pseudo-elementary class? If not, what is the proof?
user107952's user avatar
  • 21.5k
1 vote
1 answer
41 views

What is the class of models of the $\forall$-theory of the class of well-ordered sets?

I know that the class $W$ of well-ordered sets is not an axiomatizable class. However, it does have an associated first-order theory $Th(W)$. Now, consider the $\forall$-part of the theory $Th(W)$, ...
user107952's user avatar
  • 21.5k
1 vote
3 answers
93 views

Are suborders of pseudo-well-ordered sets themselves pseudo-well-ordered?

The class $W$ of well-ordered sets is not first-order axiomatizable. However, it does have an associated first-order theory $Th(W)$. I define a pseudo-well-ordered set to be an ordered set $(S;\leq)$ ...
user107952's user avatar
  • 21.5k
0 votes
1 answer
170 views

How does compactness show that every set can be linearly ordered without also proving choice (via the well-ordering theorem)?

This answer to this question contains a proof that every set can be linearly ordered, but doesn't prove choice along the way as this comment points out. I'm trying to figure out why the axiom of ...
Greg Nisbet's user avatar
  • 11.9k
1 vote
1 answer
100 views

Why does model theory treat well-ordered but uncountable languages?

In model theory, results such as the Compactness theorem and the Löwenheim–Skolem theorem hold true, not only in countable languages, but in well-ordered languages. I'm not questioning this idea in ...
Doubt's user avatar
  • 1,779
3 votes
3 answers
268 views

Two questions about the first order theory of well ordered sets.

Consider the class of well-orderings $W$. Although that class is not first-order axiomatizable, it has an associated first order theory $Th(W)$. Is it finitely axiomatizable? I conjecture that, in ...
user107952's user avatar
  • 21.5k
3 votes
1 answer
231 views

Isomorphic subsets of countable total orders

Suppose $(\Omega,\leq)$ is a totally ordered set, with $\Omega$ infinite and countable. If $S$ is an infinite subset of $\Omega$, then $(S,\leq)$ denotes the induced totally ordered set. Are there ...
Boccherini's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
77 views

What is the difference between constructing and axiomatizing a well-ordering?

In my lecture on mathematical logic, we said that the constructible universe $(\mathbb{L}, \in)$ is a model for the Axiom of Choice because all well-orderings are constructible, that is, definable by ...
David Südholt's user avatar