1
$\begingroup$

\begin{align*} \sum_{k=1}^{n-1} \frac{1}{\cosh^2\left(\frac{\pi k}{n}\right)}\end{align*}

I tried to solve with mathematica that shows enter image description here Does anyone know how to derive this and does it is possible for Human to derive this(speaking seriously)

$\endgroup$
8
  • $\begingroup$ What is your motivation for wanting to solve this? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 3, 2023 at 18:32
  • $\begingroup$ Recently I saw math.stackexchange.com/questions/544228/… this and I thought about cosh so i tried with mathmatica and... $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 3, 2023 at 18:33
  • $\begingroup$ also, why $ \cosh $ rather than $\cos \; \; \; \; ?$ $\endgroup$
    – Will Jagy
    Commented Oct 3, 2023 at 18:34
  • $\begingroup$ I saw the relative posts for cos and tan also $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 3, 2023 at 18:35
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ If you are familiar with the digamma function, this is basically rewriting your summation, it does provide any thing useful. If you simply want a derivation, you can take a look at the definition of $\psi_q$:reference.wolfram.com/language/ref/QPolyGamma.html $\endgroup$
    – Yimin
    Commented Oct 4, 2023 at 1:50

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

First of all, you could have simplified the formula $$\frac{\pi ^2}{n^2}\sum_{k=1}^{n-1} \frac{1}{\cosh^2\left(\frac{\pi k}{n}\right)}=$$ $$\psi _{e^{\frac{\pi }{n}}}^{(1)}\left(\left(1-\frac{i}{2}\right) n\right)+\psi _{e^{\frac{\pi }{n}}}^{(1)}\left(\left(1+\frac{i}{2}\right) n\right)-\psi _{e^{\frac{\pi }{n}}}^{(1)}\left(1-\frac{i n}{2}\right)-\psi _{e^{\frac{\pi }{n}}}^{(1)}\left(1+\frac{i n}{2}\right)$$

Next, you could bound the summation by the two integrals $$I_1=\int_{1}^{n-1} \frac{dk}{\cosh^2\left(\frac{\pi k}{n}\right)}=\frac n \pi \left(\tanh \left(\frac{\pi (n-1)}{n}\right)-\tanh \left(\frac{\pi }{n}\right)\right)$$

$$I_2=\int_{0}^{n-1} \frac{dk}{\cosh^2\left(\frac{\pi k}{n}\right)}=\frac n \pi \tanh \left(\frac{\pi (n-1)}{n}\right) $$ which, compared to your summation, differ at most by $\pm \frac 12$.

All of that leads to the asymptotics

$$\sum_{k=1}^{n-1} \frac{1}{\cosh^2\left(\frac{\pi k}{n}\right)}\sim -\frac 12+\frac{ \tanh (\pi )}{\pi }n-\frac{\pi \tanh (\pi ) \text{sech}^2(\pi )}{n}+O\left(\frac{1}{n^2}\right)$$

$\endgroup$

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .