Draw line segments from the centre of a unit circle to two uniformly random points on the circle, forming two regions of area $A_1$ and $A_2$.
It is easy to show that the expectation of the product of the areas $E(A_1A_2)=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_0^\pi\frac{1}{2}x\left(\pi-\frac{1}{2}x\right)dx=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$, which happens to be the answer to the Basel problem, $\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2}$.
Is this just a coincidence? Or can we solve the Basel problem by showing that $\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2}=E(A_1A_2)$, and only then calculating $E(A_1A_2)=\frac{\pi^2}{6}$?
The reason I think it might not be a coincidence, is that $E(A_1A_2)$ and $\sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2}$ are both simple, non-arbitrary constructions. It's not like we're choosing special constants just to make two things equal.