If $R$ is a ring with identity and $A_R$, ${}_{R}B$ are unitary $R$-modules, then there are $R$-module isomorphisms $$A\otimes_R R\cong R \text{ and } R\otimes_R B\cong B$$
Sketch of proof: Since $R$ is an $R\text{-}R$ bimodule $R \otimes_R B$ is a left $R$-module by Theorem 5.5. The assignment $(r,b) \mapsto rb$ defines a middle linear map $R\times B \to B$. By Theorem 5.2 there is a group homomorphism $\alpha : R\otimes_R B \to B$ such that $\alpha (r\otimes b)=rb$. Verify that $\alpha$ is in fact a homomorphism of left $R$-modules. Then verify that the map $\beta :B\to R\otimes_R B$ given by $b\mapsto 1_R\otimes b$ is an $R$-module homomorphism such that $\alpha \beta =1_B$ and $\beta \alpha = 1_{R\otimes_R B}$. Hence $\alpha : R \otimes_R B\cong B$. The isomorphism $A\otimes_R R\cong A$ is constructed similarly.
Can we prove this theorem without defining map $\alpha :R\otimes_R B\to B$? To be specific, we will show $\beta:B\to R\otimes_R B$ is left $R$-module homomorphism, surjective and injective. One of the benefit of considering only $\beta: B\to R\otimes_R B$ is that we don’t have to show $\beta$ is well defined.
Let $r\in R$ and $b\in B$. Then $$\beta (rb)=1_R\otimes rb=1_Rr\otimes b=r1_R\otimes b=r(1_R\otimes b)=r\beta (b).$$ Thus $\beta$ is left $R$-module homomorphism. Let $r\otimes b\in R\otimes_R B$. Then $\beta (rb)=r\otimes b\in \text{Im }\beta$. Thus $\text{Im } \beta$ contain all generators of $R\otimes_R B$. So $\text{Im } \beta=R\otimes_R B$ and $\beta$ is surjective.
Let $b\in \text{Ker }\beta$. Then $\beta(b)=1_R\otimes b=0$, i.e. $(1_R,b)\in K$. How to show $b=0$? Why is it so difficult to work with element of $A\otimes_R B$?