EDIT 05.02.2020
Please see my full solution here https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3535943/198592
Original post 01.02.2020
This extended comment has now become an answer: I find a solution in terms of the expected polylogs and as derivatives of Hypergeometric functions.
Solution
We have to solve the integral
$$i(z) =\int_0^z \frac{\log(1- t)\log( t)\log(1+ t)}{t}\,dt \tag{1} $$
First we transfer the dependence on $z$ to the integrand thereby restricting the integration limits to $0$ and $1$.
Letting $x=t z$ the integral becomes
$$i(z)=\int_0^1 \frac{\log(1-z t)\log(z t)\log(1+z t)}{t}\,dt \\= \underbrace{\log(z) \int_0^1 \frac{\log(1-z t)\log(1+z t)}{t}\,dt}_{i_1}+\underbrace{\int_0^1 \frac{\log(1-z t)\log(t)\log(1+z t)}{t}\,dt}_{i_2}\tag{2}$$
It splits up into two integrals since $\log(x z)=\log(z)+\log(x)$.
The first integral $i_1$ can be solved immediately (using Mathematica, see appendix) so we continue with $i_2$.
Now the integrand of $i_2$ can be simplified using the well-known trick of splitting a product of two $\log$s according to
$$\log(1+w) \log(1-w) =\frac{1}{2} \log ^2\left(1-w^2\right)-\frac{1}{2} \log ^2(1-w)-\frac{1}{2} \log ^2(w+1)\tag{3a}$$
where we have used that for $|w|<1$
$$\log(1+w) + \log(1-w) = \log(1-w^2)\tag{3b}$$
With $w = z x$ the integral is split into three integrals
$$i_2 =A+B_{-}+B_{+}\tag{4a}$$
where
$$B_{\pm} = -\int \frac{\log (x) \log ^2(1\pm x z)}{2 x} \, dx\tag{4b}$$
can be solved immediately (results not provided here for the sake of brevity) but
$$A = \int \frac{\log (x) \log ^2\left(1-x^2 z^2\right)}{2 x} \, dx\tag{5}$$
escapes the antiderivative hunt with Mathematica.
Hence, to proceed, with $A$ we adopt the differentiating procedure described in section and generate the term with the complicated argument by
$$ \log ^2\left(1-x^2 z^2\right) =\frac{\partial ^2\left(1-x^2 z^2\right)^a}{\partial a^2}|_{a\to0}\tag{6} $$
The integral (actually the antiderivative because at this stage we ignore the integration limits) can now be done under the derivative leading to the "kernel"
$$\kappa(z,a) = \frac{1}{2} \int \frac{\log (x) \left(1-x^2 z^2\right)^a}{x} \, dx\\
=-\frac{1}{8 a^2} \left(1-\frac{1}{x^2 z^2}\right)^{-a} \left(1-x^2 z^2\right)^a \left(\, _3F_2\left(-a,-a,-a;1-a,1-a;\frac{1}{x^2 z^2}\right)\\
-2 a \log (x) \, _2F_1\left(-a,-a;1-a;\frac{1}{x^2 z^2}\right)\right)\tag{7}$$
Hence we get
$$A = \frac{\partial ^2\kappa(z,a)}{\partial a^2}|_{a\to0}\tag{8}$$
Here $ _3F_2$ and $_2F_1$ are Hypergeometric functions which can be represented as single infinite sums and hence are simpler than the double infinite series of the Appell-function we have obtained in the section The derivative method.
Summarizing very briefly, we have expressed the integral $i_2$ in terms of the second derivative of Hypergeometric functions with respect to a parameter.
This means that the question has been answered (inlcuding the polylog functions $\operatorname{Li}_{1,2,3,4}(z)$ which for brevity we did not write down explcitly) provided we agree that Hypergeometric functions and their derivatives are acceptable as "closed form functions".
The derivative method
@clathratus suggested in a comment that our integral "looks almost like a derivative of $_2F_1$".
Let us have a closer look. Writing $x^a = e^{a \log{x}}$ we can generate a factor $\log(x)$ by differentiating with respect to $a$ and then letting $a\to0$, or, letting $a\to (-1)$ we obtain $\frac{\log(t)}{t}$ etc.
Hence defining
$$d = t^{b-1} (1-t z)^a (1+t z)^c\tag{d.1}$$
we can generate the integrand of $i_2$ thus
$$\frac{\partial ^3d}{\partial a\, \partial b\, \partial c}|_{a\to 0,b\to 0,c\to 0}\\=\frac{\log (t) \log (1-t z) \log (t z+1)}{t}\tag{d.2}$$
Now we carry out the integration which gives
$$\int_0^1 d \, dt=\frac{1}{b} F_1(b;-a,-c;b+1;z,-z)\tag{d.3}$$
here
$$F_1\left(\alpha ,\beta ,\beta ',\gamma ,x,y\right)=\sum _{m=0}^{\infty } \sum _{n=0}^{\infty } \frac{(\alpha )_{m+n} (\beta )_m \left(\beta '\right)_n}{ (\gamma )_{m+n}}\frac{x^m y^n }{m! n!}\tag{d.4}$$
is the AppellF1-Hypergeometric function (http://mathworld.wolfram.com/AppellHypergeometricFunction.html), a two-dimensional generalization of the common hypergeometric function and
$$(\alpha )_{n}=\frac{\Gamma(\alpha+n)}{\Gamma(\alpha)}$$
is the Pochhammer symbol.
Hence our integral $i_2$ can be expressed as derivatives of the AppellF1 function in the origin of the parameters.
There are indeed cases in which specifiy relations between the parameters hold in which $F_1$ reduces to $_2F_1$ (see reference cited above) but, unfortunately, these are not met in our case $(d.4)$. Hence the word "almost" of @clathratus is sigificant.
Appendix
Mathematica gives for $i_1$
$$i_1 = \log (z) \left(-\text{Li}_3\left(\frac{t z+1}{t z-1}\right)-\text{Li}_3(t z+1)+\text{Li}_3\left(\frac{t z+1}{1-t z}\right)-\text{Li}_3(1-t z)+\left(\text{Li}_2\left(\frac{t z+1}{t z-1}\right)-\text{Li}_2\left(\frac{t z+1}{1-t z}\right)\right) \log \left(\frac{t z+1}{1-t z}\right)+\text{Li}_2(t z+1) \left(\log \left(\frac{t z+1}{1-t z}\right)+\log (1-t z)\right)+\text{Li}_2(1-t z) \left(\log (t z+1)-\log \left(\frac{t z+1}{1-t z}\right)\right)+\frac{1}{2} \left(\log (t z)-\log \left(\frac{2 t z}{t z-1}\right)+\log \left(\frac{2}{1-t z}\right)\right) \log ^2\left(\frac{t z+1}{1-t z}\right)+(\log (-t z)-\log (t z)) \log (t z+1) \log \left(\frac{t z+1}{1-t z}\right)+\frac{1}{2} (\log (t z)-\log (-t z)) \log (t z+1) (\log (t z+1)-2 \log (1-t z))+\log (t z) \log (t z+1) \log (1-t z)\right)$$