I am trying to evaluate the following sum $$\sum_{x=a}^{\infty}\frac{1}{e\cdot x!}{x \choose a} \cdot p^{x-a}$$ for $p \in [0,1]$. This looks somewhat like the Taylor series expansion of $e$, but I don't know how I would go about applying it because of the binomial.
I evaluated the sum using Mathematica, and I got $\frac{e^{p-1}}{a!}$ which does make it seem like it's been obtained using the Taylor series of $e$ but I don't see how I would go about using it.
Any help would be appreciated.