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The following statement is given in my book under the topic Tangents to an Ellipse:

The eccentric angles of the points of contact of two parallel tangents differ by $\pi$

In case of a circle, it is easy for me to visualise that two parallel tangents meet the circle at two points which are apart by $\pi$ radians as they are diametrically opposite. But in case of ellipse, as the eccentric angle is defined with respect to the auxiliary circle and not the ellipse, I am unable to understand why two parallel tangents meet the ellipse at points which differ by $\pi$.

Kindly explain the reason behind this fact.

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2 Answers 2

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Kindly explain the reason behind this fact.

The reason is that an ellipse can be obtained by stretching/shrinking a circle. The strech/shrink is a linear map (linear transformation).

Let's consider two tangent lines on the circle $x^2+y^2=a^2$ at $(a\cos\theta,a\sin\theta)$,$(a\cos(\theta+\pi),a\sin(\theta+\pi))$. You already know that the two tangent lines are parallel.

Now, let's stretch/shrink the circle and the tangent lines. Stretching/shrinking the circle $x^2+y^2=a^2$ to obtain the ellipse $\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1$ means that you replace $y$ in $x^2+y^2=a^2$ with $\frac{a}{b}y$ to have $x^2+\left(\frac aby\right)^2=a^2$ which is nothing but $\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1$.

By this stretch/shrink, we have the followings :

  • The circle $x^2+y^2=a^2$ is transformed to the ellipse $\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1$.

  • The two parallel lines are transformed to two parallel lines.

  • The two lines tangent to the cirlce are transformed to two lines tangent to the ellipse.

  • The tangent points $(a\cos\theta,a\sin\theta)$,$(a\cos(\theta+\pi),a\sin(\theta+\pi))$ on the circle are transformed to two tangent points $(a\cos\theta,b\sin\theta)$,$(a\cos(\theta+\pi),b\sin(\theta+\pi))$ on the ellipse respectively.

From the above facts, it follows that the eccentric angles of the points of contact of two parallel tangents differ by $\pi$.


The followings are the proof for the above facts.

Let's consider the circle $x^2+y^2=a^2$ and two points $(a\cos\theta,a\sin\theta)$,$(a\cos(\theta+\pi),a\sin(\theta+\pi))$.

The equation of the tangent line at $(a\cos\theta,a\sin\theta)$ is given by $$a\cos\theta\ x+a\sin\theta\ y=a^2\tag1$$

Similarly, the equation of the tangent line at $(a\cos(\theta+\pi),a\sin(\theta+\pi))$ is given by $$a\cos(\theta+\pi)x+a\sin(\theta+\pi)y=a^2\tag2$$

Now, let's stretch/shrink the circle and the lines $(1)(2)$ by replacing $y$ with $\frac aby$ to have $$(1)\to a\cos\theta\ x+a\sin\theta\cdot\frac aby=a^2\tag3$$ $$(2)\to a\cos(\theta+\pi)x+a\sin(\theta+\pi)\cdot\frac aby=a^2\tag4 $$ Here note that these lines $(3)(4)$ are parallel since the slope of each line is $\frac{-b\cos\theta}{a\sin\theta}$.

Finally, note that $(3)$ can be written as $$\frac{a\cos\theta}{a^2}x+\frac{b\sin\theta}{b^2}y=1\tag5$$ which is nothing but the tangent line at $(a\cos\theta,b\sin\theta)$ on the ellipse $\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1$.

Similarly, $(4)$ can be written as $$\frac{a\cos(\theta+\pi)}{a^2}x+\frac{b\sin(\theta+\pi)}{b^2}y=1\tag6$$ which is nothing but the tangent line at $(a\cos(\theta+\pi),b\sin(\theta+\pi))$ on the ellipse $\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1$.

Since $(5)(6)$ are parallel, we see that the eccentric angles of the points of contact of two parallel tangents differ by $\pi$. $\quad\square$

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    $\begingroup$ @Intellex: I improved my answer. The key word here is a linear map (linear transformation). If you understand the concept of linear map, you'll immediately see that there is no difference between circles and ellipses in this context, which should be what you really want to know in this question. You might want to learn linear map. $\endgroup$
    – mathlove
    Commented Nov 15, 2019 at 14:35
  • $\begingroup$ Now it looks great. Before I learn about linear maps, I think I've to learn about modules, endomorphism, homomorphism, and other terms which are totally new to me. But, I could understand your answer just by assuming that the transformation of $y$ to $\frac a b y$ stretches or squeezes the graph (just because it worked in a graphing calculator). $\endgroup$
    – Vishnu
    Commented Nov 16, 2019 at 11:58
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According to the definition of the eccentric angle for the ellipse $\frac{x^2}{a^2}+ \frac{y^2}{b^2}=1$,

$$ t= \tan^{-1} \frac{ay}{bx}$$

evaluate

$$t_2-t_1= \tan^{-1} \frac{ay_2}{bx_2} - \tan^{-1} \frac{ay_1}{bx_1}=\tan^{-1}\frac { \frac{ay_2}{bx_2} - \frac{ay_1}{bx_1} } {1+ \frac{ay_2}{bx_2} \frac{ay_1}{bx_1} }\tag{1}$$

The tangent of the ellipse is $-\frac{b^2x}{a^2y}$. So, the two parallel tangents satisfy,

$$\frac{x_1}{y_1}=\frac{x_2}{y_2}\tag{2}$$

Plug (2) in to (1),

$$t_2-t_1=\tan^{-1} (0)$$

Thus, the two angles are $\pi$ apart.

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  • $\begingroup$ Can you please explain the significance of this statement "The tangent of the ellipse is $-\frac{b^2x}{a^2y}$." Further, I think removing this doesn't affect the answer. The condition $\frac{x_1}{y_1}=\frac{x_2}{y_2}$ can be obtained from the equation of tangent to a conic i.e., $\frac{xx_1}{a^2}+\frac{yy_1}{b^2}=1$ and so for $(x_2,y_2)$. $\endgroup$
    – Vishnu
    Commented Nov 14, 2019 at 16:03
  • $\begingroup$ @Intellex - I used $-\frac{b^2x}{a^2y}$ to arrive at $\frac{x_1}{y_1}=\frac{x_2}{y_2}$. You are right, you could arrive at the same equation alternatively. $\endgroup$
    – Quanto
    Commented Nov 14, 2019 at 16:19
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks. May I know how did you get $-\frac{b^2x}{a^2y}$? $\endgroup$
    – Vishnu
    Commented Nov 14, 2019 at 16:20
  • $\begingroup$ @Intellex - take the implicit derivative of the elliptical equation to get $\frac{2x}{a^2}+\frac{2yy’}{b^2}=0$ $\endgroup$
    – Quanto
    Commented Nov 14, 2019 at 16:23
  • $\begingroup$ Fine. I misunderstood the "tangent" for "$\tan$" of the line as the line itself. $\endgroup$
    – Vishnu
    Commented Nov 14, 2019 at 16:26

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