3
$\begingroup$

In a deck of 52 cards, 26 are reds and 26 are blacks. After shuffling the cards, the deck is divided into two stacks. What is the probability of the number of red cards in stack 1 is equal to the number of black cards in the stack 2.

I guess the probability would be 1. Is that right? Because if the first stack contains 10 reds there are 16 blacks remaining in this stack. So the other stack should contain 10 black cards. So i guess it would be 1 always.

Even if there is no red in the stack one, that means all are black in this first stack .So in second stack it would be zero blacks. Which becomes zero red equals to zero blacks. But the idea of probability one seems that something is odd :D

$\endgroup$
2
  • 7
    $\begingroup$ Yes, you are correct. $\endgroup$
    – Thomas Andrews
    Commented May 26, 2017 at 7:22
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ The fact that the probability is 1 means that the two random variables "The number of red cards in pile 1" and "The number of black cards in pile 2" are intricately linked, as you've just described. $\endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Commented May 26, 2017 at 8:59

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
0
$\begingroup$

As I suspected, the probability is one.

(P.S) Since I can't accept the comments (@Thomas Andrews), I'm answering here to close the question.

$\endgroup$
0

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .