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I am calculating intraclass correlation coefficient (ICC) values for response values at two different timepoints. I am also correlating the response values at the different timepoints using Pearson's $r$. The values are coming out almost identical. Does this conceptually make sense?

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  • $\begingroup$ Short answer: Yes. I'll write a longer answer if I have time later (and I remember and no one else does it first). $\endgroup$
    – Jeremy Miles
    Commented Jul 8 at 17:36

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