Assume that I am running the following regression:
$\hat{y_t} = \beta_0 + \beta_1 \cdot x_t$
where as $\hat{y_t}$ is a continuous variable.
Lets assume a gaussian likelihood and nonconjugate priors such as $\beta_0 \sim N(0, 1)$ and $\beta_1 \sim Beta(1,1)$
Let's assume I have a dataset spanning from timestep $0$ to $t$ and call this dataset $h_t$.
Let's assume I obtain the posterior by some numerical method such as MCMC; let's denote these posterior estimates of our parameters as $\theta$.
Now, I am interested in obtaining the probability of observing a SPECIFIC outcome $z$ given some input $x_t$; thus, what I am interested in obtaining is the following:
$p(y_{t+1} = z | x_{t+1}) = \int p(\theta|h_t)p(y_{t+1} = z | \theta, x_{t+1}) d\theta$
I believe that this expression is equal to zero since we have continuous outcomes; this should lead to $p(y_{t+1} = z | \theta, x_{t+1}) = 0$; thus we have to define intervals to properly define this expression as the following, let's assume three intervals, $z<0$, $0<=z<10$ and $10<z$. Then, we can define, for example:
$p(y_{t+1} \in z_{interval_1} | \theta, x_{t+1}) = \int p(\theta|h_t)p(y_{t+1} \in z_{interval} | \theta, x_{t+1}) d\theta$
where $z_{interval_1}$ denotes one of the intervals.
Is this line of reasoning correct?