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1 vote
0 answers
38 views

What is a gauge transformation? How does it relate to Cauchy intial value problem and second functional derivative of the action?

I am having conceptual problems about 'gauge transformation'. I have well heard that gauge trnasformation is a 'local symmetry' and 'fake symmetry', but I want to understand it more precisely. I am ...
zixuan feng's user avatar
0 votes
2 answers
69 views

Variation in the context of symmetries

I’m rephrasing a suggestion as a question because there was an aspect to it where I wanted to know more as well. I have studied both general relativity and particle physics, though in both cases my ...
Steven Dorsher's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
85 views

Why $n-1$ point function vanishes in $D=0$ scalar theory?

If we consider a $D=0$ theory with the Lagrangian: $$\mathcal{L}[\phi]=g\phi^n+J\phi$$ And its Green functions: $$G_n=\langle\phi^n\rangle_{J=0}=\frac{1}{Z[0]}\frac{\delta^nZ[J]}{\delta J^n}|_{J\...
Errorbar's user avatar
  • 368
1 vote
1 answer
214 views

Symmetry groups breaking for the lagrangian of two complex scalar fields

Suppose we have a generic non-interacting Lagrangian of two complex scalar fields, \begin{align} \mathcal{L} &= (\partial^\mu \Phi^\dagger)(\partial_\mu \Phi) - \Phi^\dagger\mathbb{M}^2\Phi \tag{1}...
IGY's user avatar
  • 1,783
0 votes
1 answer
376 views

Ward identity of correlation function

For local observables $\{O_i(x_i)\}^n_{i = 1}$, one defines the Ward identity as $$\partial_{\mu}\langle j^{\mu}(x)\prod^n_{i = 1}O(x_i)\rangle = \sum^n_{i = 1}\delta(x-x_i)\langle O_1(x_1)\cdots\...
user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
40 views

Does Elitzur's theorem say anything about theories which are NOT gauge theories?

Does Elitzur's theorem say anything about theories which are NOT gauge theories? I was wondering what happens if one considers scalar sector, or massive spin-1 field with a bare mass included in the ...
Iosuf's user avatar
  • 153
1 vote
3 answers
204 views

Why the symmetry of $\phi^4$ excludes the odd diagams?

I have a follow-up question from this post: Suppose $$ L\supset \lambda\phi^4 $$ This term is invariant under $\phi\rightarrow-\phi$, Peskin and Schroeder (p.323) said this implies that all amplitudes ...
IGY's user avatar
  • 1,783
2 votes
0 answers
52 views

Do Ward identities imply that there is an (effective) Lagrangian invariant under the symmetry?

In usual perturbative QFT, if the UV Lagrangian is invariant under a symmetry $G$ and the regularization of the path integral does not break $G$, the Feynman rules are explicitly invariant under $G$. ...
Blind Miner's user avatar
14 votes
3 answers
3k views

How are anomalies possible?

From Matthew D. Shwartz Quantum Field Theory textbook, he writes: "Most of the time, a symmetry of a classical theory is also a symmetry of the quantum theory based on the same Lagrangian. When ...
Jbag1212's user avatar
  • 2,599
5 votes
2 answers
318 views

Symmetry factors in two interacting fields

Red and blue colored lines represent the two different fields. At 1st order, by the exchange of the blue legs and red legs we get $\frac{1}{4}$ factor and in one of the 2nd order term drawn above, ...
Monopole's user avatar
  • 3,464
-1 votes
1 answer
161 views

Is the Standard Model, in some sense, special relativity plus everything possible?

I found this intro to QFT on YouTube really helpful (and apparently I'm not the only one). Let my try to summarize it: We start with Minkowski space. We want to add a field to it, but there are only ...
Adam Herbst's user avatar
  • 2,475
3 votes
1 answer
327 views

How can Chiral symmetry protect the mass of a fermion if it's broken by quantization?

Suppose we have a Lagrangian invariant under Chiral symmetry, such as QED with massless fermions: $$ \mathscr{L} = -\frac{1}{4} F_{\mu \nu} F^{\mu \nu} + \bar{\psi} i \gamma^{\mu} D_{\mu} \psi .$$ In ...
OutrageousKangaroo's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
223 views

Symmetry protects against symmetry-breaking counterterms in renormalization

My lecturer said that when we renormalize a theory (any theory, not necessarily a renormalizable one) we can do so by adding counterterms to the original Lagrangian $\mathscr{L}_B$, turning it into $\...
OutrageousKangaroo's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
195 views

$\phi^4$ theory in 5 dimensions

$\phi^4$ theory is not perturbatively renormalizable in 5 dimensions. I have come across literature where renormalizability is discussed w.r.t $N$, for fields obeying $O(N)$ symmetry. But it is not ...
Angela's user avatar
  • 1,023
2 votes
1 answer
741 views

What is an accidental symmetry?

Wikipedia describes an accidental symmetry as a symmetry which is present in a renormalizable theory only because the terms which break it have too high a dimension to appear in the Lagrangian but I ...
Mauro Giliberti's user avatar

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