Good day to everyone, this is my first time asking a question on the site so I hope the formalism isn't too sloppy.
During my studies in QFT it was often remarked that given a single particle covariant state such as $|1(p)>$ the correct renormalization condition is the following
$$<1(p)|1(p)>=(2\pi)^32w_p\delta ^3(0) \tag{1}$$
where $w_p$ is the energy of the state. Equation $(1)$ implies that the state $|1(p)>$ has mass dimensions $-1$. However recently, while studying the optical theorem i've found the following equation.
$Im(<Z|T|Z>)=M_Z\Gamma_Z \, \, \,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,(2)$
where $|Z>$ is a $Z$ boson state, $M_Z$ and $\Gamma_Z$ are the mass and deacy width of the $Z$ boson and $T$ is the non-trivial part of the $S-matrix$
From equation $(2)$ i gather that $|Z>$ must have mass dimension $1$ since the r.h.s. has mass dimension $2$ and $T$ is dimensionless, but this contrasts what I deduced from equation $(1)$. so which one is correct? Am i missing something?