It is always said that when the Wigner function of quantum states takes a negative value, then it is a clear signature of non-classicality of this particular state. It is also well-known that the Wigner function of squeezed states is completely non-negative, yet, we still call squeezed states quantum. How does one explain this supposed contradiction here? is the Wigner function just not a "strong enough" measure of non-classicality? if so, what is? Also, what defines non-classicality for that matter (specifically for squeezed states)?
Thanks!