All Questions
30
questions
4
votes
1
answer
47
views
Kantian Subjectivism Contradiction?
Kant rendered the judgments of reason as subjective, neither narrating nor accurately reflecting the reality of things.
"We only sense from external objects, thus perception does not express ...
- 55
6
votes
2
answers
147
views
Does Kant implicitly commit the paralogism of pure reason when saying that to have a representation it is necessary to accompany it with 'I think'?
In Caygill's Kant Dictionary entry of 'I Think' there is this part:
Kant further claims that 'I think' is the necessary vehicle/form/accompaniment of experience: to have a representation it is ...
- 613
1
vote
3
answers
276
views
Is "there are synthetic a priori truths" a synthetic a priori truth?
Disregarding any modern objections to the division of synthetic/analytic and a priori/a posteriori, how would one argue for or against this claim, using Kant's definitions and assumptions?
Also, is ...
- 613
2
votes
2
answers
115
views
In Kant, what would happen if singular objects that we perceive in space didn't necessarily have the spatial properties that we perceive them to have?
In Paul Guyer's Kant, section "Space and Time: the pure forms of sensible intuition", Guyer argues that "Kant’s argument for transcendental idealism is incomplete."
For that, he ...
- 613
2
votes
2
answers
88
views
Kant's Prolegomena Note I - Geometry being an objective representation of nature
I'm trying to understand this part of Kant's Prolegomena to Any Future Metaphysics, Note I to "How is pure mathematics possible?":
It would be completely different if the senses had to ...
- 613
3
votes
1
answer
433
views
Kant's Prolegomena §13 - triangle example argument
In Prolegomena to Any Future Metaphysics, Kant argues that space (and time) are not qualities of objects, but a priori intuitions that allow the concepts of objects in our minds.
To argue in favor of ...
- 613
3
votes
2
answers
77
views
Why is the argument from synthetic a priori cognition to the subjectivity of what is cognized independent of the "appearance" premise?
In Paul Guyer's Kant, section "A Life in Work", the author claims this:
this argument from synthetic a priori cognition to the subjectivity of what is cognized is independent of the general ...
- 613
2
votes
2
answers
256
views
In Kant, are "pure intuition" and "intuition a priori" synonyms?
I'm reading the prolegomena, and in §7, Kant presents both
"pure intuition" (reine Anschauung), mentioned many times, and
"intuition a priori" (Anschauung a priori), mentioned ...
- 613
2
votes
2
answers
353
views
According to Kant, while thinking of empty concepts without intuitions, what do we synthesise?
(This will be my last question on this book, for those of you getting bored of my questions).
Very briefly I will describe the method of Transcendental Deduction (TD) in an over-simplistic manner, and ...
- 453
2
votes
1
answer
70
views
Can somebody explain the second argument of B-deduction in CPR?
For me, the Transcendental Deduction aims at proving two things:
Categories or pure concepts of understanding must be applied to the manifold of intuitions, i.e, they are necessary for cognition.
...
- 453
2
votes
1
answer
187
views
Problem with Refutation of Idealism
Can someone please defend Kant's refutation of idealism in the B-edition, because it seems untenable to me.
First, he claims that 'I' am aware of myself being subjected to a specific temporal order ...
- 453
2
votes
1
answer
57
views
What if the premise of CPR's Transcedental Deduction is wrong?
The transcendental unity of apperception is that unity through which all the manifold given in an intuition is united in a concept of the object. It is therefore entitled objective, and must be ...
- 453
3
votes
1
answer
197
views
Why are concepts without intuitions blind?
I think at this point I understand all the transcendental arguments of CPR except this one - and probably this could considerably change my understanding of Kant as a whole.
Here is my confusion.
...
- 453
5
votes
5
answers
258
views
Does Kant justify intuitions existing without understanding?
Objects can indeed appear to us without necessarily having to be
related to functions of the understanding. (A89/B122)
Appearances can certainly be given in intuition without functions of
the ...
- 453
3
votes
2
answers
361
views
What's Kant defense of a noumenal world actually existing?
There is a sharp distinction according to most commentaries between Berkeley and Kant - and perhaps it's purely due to the fact that Kant doesn't render experience in-itself enough to make sense of ...
- 453