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Can we have a one-one function from [0,1] to the set of irrational numbers?
Since both of them are uncountable sets, we should be able to construct such a map. Am I correct?
If so, then what is the map?
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Bijection from the irrationals to the reals
Since the irrationals and the reals have the same cardinality, there must be a bijection between them. Somewhere on this forum I found something like this:
Map all of the numbers of the form $q + ...
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