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4 votes
1 answer
2k views

Proof of Principle of Duality: Show that $φ$' is logically equivalent to $¬φ$

Could anyone check if my proof is ok/ suggest any improvement please? I couldn't find a way to utilise the induction hypothesis so I am not sure if this is ok. Let $φ$ be a formula built up using ...
Constantly confused's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
981 views

Changing conjunction and disjunction in equivalent boolean functions.

I have some difficulties to prove that if two equivalent boolean functions contain only ∧, ∨ and $\neg$ than we can change ∧ to ∨ and vice versa and the result functions will remain equivalent. There'...
Vladislav Semenov's user avatar