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There's a small detail in this proof on why $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k^2} = \frac{\pi^2}{6}$ that I can't figure out
http://www.maa.org/sites/default/files/pdf/upload_library/2/Kalman-2013.pdf
Here is a link to the article I have been reading. It's really interesting and easy to follow. What bothers me is a result ...
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