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36 votes
3 answers
12k views

If $f$ is measurable and $fg$ is in $L^1$ for all $g \in L^q$, must $f \in L^p$?

Let $f$ be a measurable function on a measure space $X$ and suppose that $fg \in L^1$ for all $g\in L^q$. Must $f$ be in $L^p$, for $p$ the conjugate of $q$? If we assume that $\|fg\|_1 \leq C\|g\|_q$ ...
user15464's user avatar
  • 11.8k
22 votes
6 answers
20k views

If $\int_0^x f \ dm$ is zero everywhere then $f$ is zero almost everywhere

I have been thinking on and off about a problem for some time now. It is inspired by an exam problem which I solved but I wanted to find an alternative solution. The object was to prove that some ...
Johan's user avatar
  • 2,259
58 votes
5 answers
28k views

Is there a change of variables formula for a measure theoretic integral that does not use the Lebesgue measure

Is there a generic change of variables formula for a measure theoretic integral that does not use the Lebesgue measure? Specifically, most references that I can find give a change of variables ...
Oyqcb's user avatar
  • 581
12 votes
4 answers
3k views

Proof of $\int_{[0,\infty)}pt^{p-1}\mu(\{x:|f(x)|\geq t\})d\mu(t)=\int_{[0,\infty)}\mu(\{x:|f(x)|^p\geq s\})d\mu(s)$

Let $({\Bbb R},{\mathcal A},\mu)$ be the measure space where ${\mu}$ is the Lebesgue measure. Assume that $\int_{\Bbb R}|f|^pd\mu<\infty$ ($p\geq1$). There is an exercise for proving that $$\...
user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
1k views

surface measure and Gauss-Green theorem proof

The famous Gauss-Green theorem states the follows. Let $\Omega$ be a bounded open set of $\mathbb{R}^n$and $\partial \Omega$ be $C^1$ boundary. Then for $f,g \in C^1(\overline{\Omega}),$ the ...
Celestina's user avatar
  • 1,174
71 votes
2 answers
29k views

Integration with respect to counting measure.

I am having trouble computing integration w.r.t. counting measure. Let $(\mathbb{N},\scr{P}(\mathbb{N}),\mu)$ be a measure space where $\mu$ is counting measure. Let $f:\mathbb{N}\rightarrow{\mathbb{R}...
user avatar
34 votes
4 answers
5k views

Is there any difference between the notations $\int f(x)d\mu(x)$ and $\int f(x) \mu(dx)$?

Suppose $\mu$ is a measure. Is there any difference in meaning between the notation $$\int f(x)d\mu(x)$$ and the notation $$\int f(x) \mu(dx)$$?
Simon's user avatar
  • 519
14 votes
3 answers
13k views

Prove Minkowski's Inequality for Integrals

I am interested in proving the following claims : Suppose that ($X$, $\mathcal{M}$, $\mu$) and ($Y$, $\mathcal{N}$, $\nu$) are $\sigma$-finite measure spaces, and let $f$ be an ($\mathcal{M} \otimes \...
Heidi's user avatar
  • 141
9 votes
1 answer
2k views

Prove that $\int_{E}f =\lim \int_{E}f_{n}$

I'm doing exercise in Real Analysis of Folland, and got stuck on this problem. I try to use Fatou lemma but can't come to the conclusion. Can anyone help me. I really appreciate. Consider a ...
le duc quang's user avatar
  • 4,845
7 votes
2 answers
3k views

Jordan measure zero discontinuities a necessary condition for integrability

The following theorem is well known: Theorem: A function $f: [a,b] \to \mathbb R$ is Riemann integrable if and only if its set of discontinuities has Lebesgue measure zero. Now if we change ...
Tyler Holden's user avatar
  • 3,586
6 votes
3 answers
942 views

Proof of the identity $\int_0^{+\infty}\frac{\sin(x)}{x^\alpha}dx=\frac{\Gamma(\alpha/2)\Gamma(1-\alpha/2)}{2\Gamma(\alpha)}$ for $\alpha\in (0,2)$.

Let $0<\alpha<2.$ Looking for a proof for the following: $$\int_0^{+\infty}\frac{\sin(x)}{x^\alpha}dx=\frac{\Gamma(\alpha/2)\Gamma(1-\alpha/2)}{2\Gamma(\alpha)}.$$ Any ideas?
Kurt.W.X's user avatar
  • 1,070
8 votes
2 answers
2k views

Summing over General Functions of Primes and an Application to Prime $\zeta$ Function

Along the lines of thought given here, is it in general possible to substitute a summation over a function $f$ of primes like the following: $$ \sum_{p\le x}f(p)=\int_2^x f(t) d(\pi(t))\tag{1} $$ and ...
draks ...'s user avatar
  • 18.6k
50 votes
8 answers
6k views

Why do we restrict the definition of Lebesgue Integrability?

The function $f(x) = \sin(x)/x$ is Riemann Integrable from $0$ to $\infty$, but it is not Lebesgue Integrable on that same interval. (Note, it is not absolutely Riemann Integrable.) Why is it we ...
Rachel's user avatar
  • 2,924
17 votes
3 answers
1k views

"Proof" all integrals are $0$

Given some definite integral over $[a,b]$ make the substitution $ u = x(x-a-b)$. The integral is then transformed to an integral over $[-ab,-ab]$ which is zero. What is wrong with this reasoning? When ...
mtheorylord's user avatar
  • 4,284
6 votes
2 answers
297 views

Working with infinitesimals of the form d(f(x)), for example d(ax), and relating them to dx (integration, delta function)

I am trying to get a better understanding on how we can manipulate the infinitesimal dx in an integral $$\int f(x) dx$$ I have come across the following $$ d(\cos (x)) = -\sin(x) dx$$ Therefore $$\int^...
Mr Lolo's user avatar
  • 443

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