Disclaimer: I am sure that this idea is not at all new, but I have had trouble locating content directly related. I humbly accept that this question may be the result of a brain fart.
Suppose that there is a measure $\mu$ on some $\sigma$-algebra of the positive integers such that $\mu(n\mathbb{Z^+})=\frac{1}{n}$ for every $n\in\mathbb{Z^+}$. Heuristically, the inclusion/exclusion principle shows that $$\mu(\{1\})=1-\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{6}-\cdots=\frac{1}{\zeta(1)}=0,$$ and similarly other points have measure $0$. Since $\mu$ is countably additive, $1=\mu(\mathbb{Z^+})=0$.
On the other hand, we can look at a (possibly non-existent) family of measures $\mu_{\epsilon}:\Omega(\mathbb{Z^+})\rightarrow[0,1]$ where $\mu_{\epsilon}(n\mathbb{Z^+})=\frac{1}{n^{1+\epsilon}}$ for $\epsilon>0$ and $n\in\mathbb{Z^+}$.
I have three questions:
- Is it known whether measures like these exist (rather than being an unrealizable fantasy)?
- If they do exist, are they useful or are there some common barriers to using them.
- If they are useful, would you point me to some literature utilizing them.