Following, e.g. Wikipedia, let us define a boolean algebra to be a set $A$, together with two binary operations $\land$ and $\lor$, a unary operation $'$, and two nullary operations $0$ and $1$, satisfying the following axioms:
$$\begin{align*}
a\lor(b\lor c) &= (a\lor b)\lor c, & a\land(b\land c) &= (a\land b)\land c, &&\text{(associativity)}\\
a\lor b &= b\lor a, & a\land b &= b\land a, &&\text{(commutativity)}\\
a\lor(a\land b) &= a, & a\land (a\lor b) &= a, &&\text{(absorption)}\\
a\lor(b\land c) &= (a\lor b)\land (a\lor c), & a\land(b\lor c) &= (a\land b)\lor (a\land c) &&\text{(distributivity)}\\
a\lor a' &= 1, & a\land a' &= 0. &&\text{(complements)}
\end{align*}$$
You want to use these axioms to prove that $(a\land b)' = a'\lor b'$ and $(a\lor b)' = a'\land b'$.
Lemma 1. $a\land 1 = a$ and $a\lor 0 = a$ for all $a$.
Proof.
$a \land 1 = a\land(a\lor a') = a$, by complements and absorption; likewise, $a\lor 0 = a\lor(a\land a') = a$ by complements and absorption. $\Box$
Lemma 2. $a\land 0 = 0$ and $a\lor 1 = 1$ for all $a$.
Proof. $a\land 0 = a\land (a\land a') = (a\land a)\land a' = a\land a' = 0$. And $a\lor 1 = a\lor(a\lor a') = (a\lor a)\lor a' = a\lor a' = 1$. $\Box$
Lemma 3. If $a\land b' = 0$ and $a\lor b'=1$, then $a=b$.
Proof.
$$\begin{align*}
b &= b\land 1\\
&= b\land(a\lor b')\\
&= (b\land a)\lor (b\land b')\\
&= (b\land a)\lor 0\\
&= (b\land a)\lor (a\land b')\\
&= (a\land b)\lor(a\land b')\\
&= a\land (b\lor b')\\
&= a\land 1\\
&= a.\ \Box
\end{align*}$$
Lemma 4. For all $a$, $(a')' = a$.
Proof. By Lemma 3, it suffices to show that $(a')'\land a' = 0$ and $(a')'\lor a' = 1$. But this follows directly by complementation. $\Box$
Theorem. $(a\land b)' = a'\lor b'$.
By Lemmas 3 and 4,
it suffices to show that $(a\land b)\land (a'\lor b') = 0$ and $(a\land b)\lor (a'\lor b') = 1$; for by Lemma 4, this is the same as proving $(a\land b)\land (a'\lor b')'' =0$ and $(a\land b)\lor (a'\lor b')'' = 1$; by Lemma 3, this gives $(a\land b) = (a'\lor b')'$, and applying Lemma 4 again we get $(a\land b)' = (a'\lor b')'' = a'\lor b'$, which is what we want.
We have:
$$\begin{align*}
(a\land b)\land(a'\lor b') &= \bigl((a\land b)\land a')\bigr) \lor \bigl((a\land b)\land b') &&\text{(by distributivity)}\\
&= \bigl( (a\land a')\land b\bigr) \lor \bigl( a\land (b\land b')\bigr) &&\text{(associativity and commutativity)}\\
&= ( 0\land b) \lor (a\land 0)\\
&= 0 \lor 0\\
&= 0.
\end{align*}$$
And
$$\begin{align*}
(a\land b)\lor(a'\lor b') &= \bigl( (a\land b)\lor a'\bigr) \lor b'&&\text{(by associativity)}\\
&= \bigl( (a\lor a') \land (b\lor a')\bigr) \lor b'&&\text{(by distributivity)}\\
&= \bigl( 1\land (b\lor a')\bigr) \lor b'&&\text{(by complements)}\\
&= (b\lor a')\lor b'&&\text{(by Lemma 1)}\\
&= (b\lor b')\lor a'&&\text{(by commutativity and associativity)}\\
&= 1\lor a'&&\text{(by complements)}\\
&= 1 &&\text{(by Lemma 2)}.
\end{align*}$$
Since $(a\land b)\land (a'\lor b') = 0$ and $(a\land b)\lor (a'\lor b') = 1$, the conclusion follows. $\Box$
Theorem. $(a\lor b)' = a'\land b'$.
Proof. Left as an exercise for the interested reader. $\Box$