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Can someone please explain how to supply a rigorous $\epsilon,\delta$ argument for this theorem as Spivak says ?

My argument is:

$f'(a)=\lim_{h\to 0} f'(\alpha_h)$ equivalent to $|f'(\alpha_h)-f'(a)|<\epsilon$ if $0<|h|<\delta$.

Since $\alpha_h$ takes on every value in the interval $(a,a+h)$ and approaches $a$ as $h\to 0$, thus $\alpha_h=x=a+h$.

So $|f'(x) -f'(a)|<\epsilon$ if $0<|x-a|<\delta$ which is equivalent to $\lim_{x\to a}f'(x)=f'(a)$.

Can someone please explain how the correct argument would be ?

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1 Answer 1

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Let $\displaystyle L = \lim_{x \to a} f'(x)$ and let $\epsilon > 0$ be given.

We may select $\delta > 0$ with the property that $0 < |x-a| < \delta$ implies $|f'(x) - L| < \epsilon$.

Now, if $0 < |x-a| < \delta$ we may invoke the mean value theorem to find a point $c$ in between $a$ and $x$ satisfying $\dfrac{f(x) - f(a)}{x-a} = f'(c)$. Note that $c$ also satisfies $0 < |c-a| < \delta$, so that $|f'(c) - L| < \epsilon$. Consequently $\left| \dfrac{f(x) - f(a)}{x-a} - L \right| < \epsilon$. In other words, $$0 < |x-a| < \delta \implies \left| \frac{f(x) - f(a)}{x-a} - L \right| < \epsilon.$$

This is precisely what $f'(a) = L$ means.

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  • $\begingroup$ Umberto P., please feel free to ignore this. In your proof, by assumption that the limit exists, it is certainly the case that for any $x \in (a-\delta,a+\delta)\setminus\{a\}$, $f'(x)$ exists. This means that $f$ is differentiable on the open intervals $(a-\delta,a)$ and $(a,a+\delta)$. However, in order to invoke the mean value theorem for each of those intervals, we would need to further show that $f$ is continuous on the closed intervals $[a-\delta,a]$ and $[a,a+\delta]$. $\endgroup$
    – S.C.
    Commented Oct 4, 2021 at 3:38
  • $\begingroup$ This can certainly be done by choosing the appropriate $\delta$...making sure that this $\delta$ sits inside the differentiable "interval" that is mentioned in the theorem's initial assumptions. $\endgroup$
    – S.C.
    Commented Oct 4, 2021 at 3:38

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