I think the easiest way to prove it is to think of a finite set of $n$ elements,
If you think of it that way, it's the number of even sized ($(-1)^k = 1$) subsets of $\{1,\,\dotsc,\,n\}$ minus the number of odd-sized ($(-1)^k = -1$) subsets.
The map
$$\varphi \colon S \mapsto
\begin{cases} S\cup \{1\} &, 1 \notin S\\
S \setminus \{1\} &, 1 \in S
\end{cases}$$
that "flips $1$", i.e. adds $1$ to $S$ if $1\notin S$ and removes it if $1\in S$, is a bijection between the set of even-sized and the set of odd-sized subsets. Thus $\{1,\, \dotsc,\,n\}$ has as many even-sized subsets as odd-sized, i.e.
$$\sum_{k=0}^n (-1)^k\binom{n}{k} = 0$$
for all $n \geqslant 1$.