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I need some help with the following problem:

Let $X_1,...,X_n$ be a random sample from Normal$(0,1)$ population. Define $$Y_1=| {{1 \over n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}X_i}|, \ Y_2={1 \over n}\sum_{i=1}^{n}|X_i|.$$ Calculate $E[Y_1]$ and $E[Y_2]$, and establish the inequality between them.

I may feel this should not be a very hard problem but I did get stuck somewhere. And I know it is $E[Y_1]\le E[Y_2]$ and I could prove this. But can anyone help me with how to exact find $E[Y_1]$ and $E[Y_2]$?

Thanks in advance.

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    $\begingroup$ Calculate $Y_1$ by noting $\frac1n \sum_{i=1}^n X_i$ is also a normal random variable with known mean and variance. Calculate $Y_2$ using $E(X+Y) = E(X) + E(Y)$. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 7, 2013 at 17:18
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    $\begingroup$ This is exercise 5.12 from Casella and Berger's Statistical Inference. $\endgroup$
    – Alex D
    Commented Apr 1, 2023 at 16:27

2 Answers 2

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It is worth knowing that the expected absolute value of a normal random variable with mean $\mu = 0$ and standard deviation $\sigma$ is $\sigma \sqrt{\dfrac{2}{\pi}}$. See Wikipedia on the half-normal distribution.

$Y_1$ is the absolute value of a normal random variable with mean $0$ and standard deviation ${\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{n}}}$ so $E[Y_1] = \sqrt{\dfrac{2}{\pi n}}$.

$Y_2$ is the average of $n$ absolute values of normal random variables with mean $0$ and standard deviation $1$ so the average of random variables with expected value $\sqrt{\dfrac{2}{\pi}}$ meaning $E[Y_2] = \sqrt{\dfrac{2}{\pi}}$.

For $n \gt 1$ you have $\sqrt{\dfrac{2}{\pi n}} \lt \sqrt{\dfrac{2}{\pi }}$.

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  • $\begingroup$ can you explain how the standard deviation of $Y_{1}$ is $\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}$? I thought since $Y_{1}$ is the sum of $n$ standard normal variables its variance will be $n$ and its standard deviation $\sqrt{n}$ $\endgroup$
    – xabush
    Commented Jun 16, 2023 at 10:27
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    $\begingroup$ @xabush $\sum_1^n X_i$ has a normal distribution with mean $0$ and variance $n$ and standard deviation $\sqrt{n}$. So $\frac1n\sum_1^n X_i$ has a normal distribution with mean $0$ and variance $\frac1n$ and standard deviation $\frac1{\sqrt{n}}$. Here $Y_1$ is the absolute value of $\frac1n\sum_1^n X_i$ $\endgroup$
    – Henry
    Commented Jun 16, 2023 at 10:32
  • $\begingroup$ Oh, you're right! I forgot about the outer $\frac{1}{n}$ $\endgroup$
    – xabush
    Commented Jun 16, 2023 at 11:07
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Regarding the general form of the mean of the absolute value of a Normal$(\mu,\sigma^2)$:

Following @Henry's link to Wikipedia's article on the half-normal, I found that there is now a page for the so-called "Folded normal distribution", which is an extension of the half-normal for $\mu\neq 0$. They give the expression for the mean, which coincides with the one given by @Henry for $\mu=0$

$$ \sigma \sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}} e^{-\frac{\mu^2}{2\sigma^2}} + \mu \left(1 - 2\Phi\left(\frac{-\mu}{\sigma}\right) \right) $$

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