Let $I$ be a directed set. Let consider the direct limit in the category of abelian groups. Suppose $A\cong \varinjlim_{i\in I} A_i$. Then, is it true that $A[2]\cong \varinjlim_i (A_i[2])$ ? Here, $[2]$ denotes the 2-part, that is, for abelian group $M$, $M[2]=\{x\in M\mid 2x=0\}$
Do you think does this hold in general ?
example 1. $\varinjlim_{i\in \Bbb{N}} \frac{1}{n}\Bbb{Z}\cong \Bbb{Q}$ and $\varinjlim_{i\in \Bbb{N}}(\dfrac{1}{n}\Bbb{Z})[2]\cong 0$ indeed holds.
But I don't have confident on counter examples. Thank you for very much for your help.