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I need to calculate the limit (if it exist) $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\left\{n\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{k^5}\right\}$$ where $\{x\}$ denotes the fractional part of $x$ and $n\in\mathbb{N}$.

By definition of fractional part function, $$0\leq\left\{n\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{k^5}\right\}<1$$ So we have $$0\leq\lim_{n\to\infty}\left\{n\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{k^5}\right\}\leq1$$ Sorry but I don't have any ideas. Any help would be highly appreciated.

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    $\begingroup$ It seems to oscillate between $y=0$ and $y=1$ $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24 at 17:13
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    $\begingroup$ You can compare with $\{x\int_{1}^{n}\frac{1}{x^{5}}\}$ to get some idea as to how the function behaves. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24 at 17:16
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    $\begingroup$ Roughly speaking, I'd expect the asymptotic behavior of $\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k^5}$ to be $\zeta(5) - \frac{1}{5 n^4}$, so $n \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k^5} \sim n \zeta(5) - \frac{1}{5 n^3}$. So, the fractional part should be close to that of $n \zeta(5)$ (except possibly for some cases where it wraps around at a different point), and since $\zeta(5)$ is not an integer, that would mean (roughly speaking again) that if you increase $n$ by one, then the sequence increases by about $\{\zeta(5)\}$ or decreases by about $1-\{\zeta(5)\}$, making it impossible for the sequence to converge. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24 at 18:46
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    $\begingroup$ @DanielSchepler Thanks for your comment. I request you to please write as an answer proving that the sequence is not convergent. $\endgroup$
    – Max
    Commented Jun 24 at 18:51
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    $\begingroup$ I think that if $\zeta(5)$ is irrational then the sequence is dense in $[0,1].$ In general if $a_n\to 0$ and $b$ is irrational then $\{nb-a_n\}$ should be dense in $[0,1].$ $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24 at 18:56

2 Answers 2

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First, observe that $$\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k^5} = \zeta(5) - \sum_{k=n+1}^\infty \frac{1}{k^5}.$$ However, by an argument similar to the one used in the proof of the integral test, $$0 < \sum_{k=n+1}^\infty \frac{1}{k^5} < \int_n^\infty \frac{dx}{x^5} = \frac{1}{5 n^4}.$$ Therefore, if we let $a_n := n \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k^5}$, then $$n \zeta(5) - \frac{1}{5 n^3} < a_n < n \zeta(5).$$ However, at this point, if we try to get an approximation of $\{ a_n \}$ using the above approximation of $a_n$, then we run into the issue that the fractional part function is discontinuous at integers, so $\{ a_n \}$ and $\{ n \zeta(5) \}$ could be different by almost one when $a_n$ is close to an integer. To get around this, I will use the fairly standard trick of using the function $x \mapsto e^{2\pi i x}$ from $\mathbb{R}$ to the unit circle $S^1$ in the complex plane; this function is continuous and is closely related to the fractional part function. (Alternatively, if you're comfortable with the topological group $\mathbb{R} / \mathbb{Z}$, then you could instead use the projection map $\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} / \mathbb{Z}$.)

Thus, from the above inequalities, it is straightforward to conclude that $a_{n+1} - a_n \to \zeta(5)$ as $n \to \infty$; as a result, $e^{2\pi i a_{n+1}} / e^{2\pi i a_n} \to e^{2\pi i \zeta(5)}$ as $n \to \infty$. However, since $1 < \zeta(5) < 2$, $\zeta(5)$ is not an integer, so $e^{2\pi i \zeta(5)} \ne 1$. That implies that the sequence $e^{2\pi i a_n}$ cannot be convergent.

On the other hand, $e^{2\pi i a_n} = e^{2\pi i \{ a_n \}}$. Therefore, if we had $\lim_{n\to \infty} \{ a_n \} = L$, we would have $e^{2\pi i a_n} \to e^{2\pi i L}$ as $n\to \infty$, giving a contradiction to the previous paragraph. We can thus conclude that $\{ a_n \}$ also is not a convergent sequence.

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  • $\begingroup$ ($+1$) Thanks. I am unable to understans that "since $1 < \zeta(5) < 2$, $\zeta(5)$ is not an integer, so $e^{2\pi i \zeta(5)} \ne 1$. That implies that the sequence $e^{2\pi i a_n}$ cannot be convergent." How did we get that sequence $e^{2\pi i a_n}$ is not convergent? $\endgroup$
    – Max
    Commented Jun 24 at 20:45
  • $\begingroup$ If it were convergent, then you would have $e^{2\pi i a_{n+1}} / e^{2\pi i a_n} \to 1$ as $n \to \infty$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24 at 20:47
  • $\begingroup$ I would be indebted if you please include in your answer the proof using topological group $\mathbb{R} / \mathbb{Z}$ using the projection map. $\endgroup$
    – Max
    Commented Jun 24 at 21:14
  • $\begingroup$ That would simply be that $(a_{n+1} + \mathbb{Z}) - (a_n + \mathbb{Z}) \to \zeta(5) + \mathbb{Z} \ne 0 + \mathbb{Z}$, so the sequence $a_n + \mathbb{Z}$ cannot be convergent in $\mathbb{R} / \mathbb{Z}$. And also, $\{ a_n \} + \mathbb{Z} = a_n + \mathbb{Z}$, and the projection $x \mapsto x + \mathbb{Z}$ is continuous, so if $\{ a_n \}$ were a convergent sequence in $\mathbb{R}$ then $\{ a_n \} + \mathbb{Z}$ would be a convergent sequence in $\mathbb{R} / \mathbb{Z}$, giving a contradiction. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24 at 21:25
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks a lot. So you said that we apply the standard trick of using the function $x \mapsto e^{2\pi i x}$ from $\mathbb{R}$ to the unit circle $S^1$ in the complex plane; this function is continuous and is closely related to the fractional part function. Can you please give me a reference of this trick. $\endgroup$
    – Max
    Commented Jun 25 at 15:43
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Assume a number $a$ is an accumulation point of the sequence $\{a_n\}.$ Then $0\le a\le 1.$ Observe that for any sequence $0<b_n\to 0$ the number $a$ is an accumulation point of $\{a_n-b_n\},$ when $0<a\le 1,$ and $1$ is an accumulation point of $\{a_n-b_n\},$ when $a=0.$ Thus $\{a_n-b_n\}$ is not convergent if $\{a_n\}$ admits at least two accumulation points.

We are going to apply the above to the arithmetic sequence $a_n=nx.$ It is well known that for an irrational number $x$ the sequence $\{nx\}$ is dense in $(0,1).$

Assume $\{x\}={p\over q},$ where $q\ge 2$ and $p$ and $q$ are relatively prime. The sequence $\{nx\}$ is $q$- periodic and its accumulation points are ${s\over q}$ for $0\le s<q.$

In both cases the sequence $\{nx\}$ has at least two accumulation points. So does $\{nx-b_n\}.$

Now we can apply the above to $x=\zeta(5)$ and $b_n=\displaystyle n\sum_{k=n+1}^\infty k^{-5},$ as $$n\zeta(5)-b_n=n\sum_{k=1}^nk^{-5}$$

Thus the sequence in question is divergent, provided that $\zeta(5)$ is not an integer.

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  • $\begingroup$ ($+1$) Thanks. How did we get that the sequence is divergent? $\endgroup$
    – Max
    Commented Jun 24 at 20:39
  • $\begingroup$ For $a$ irrational The sequence $\{na-b_n\}$ is dense in $[0,1],$ hence divergent. For $a$ rational $p/q$ the sequence $\{na-b_n\}$ admits accumulation points $s/q$ where $0\le s<q$ so it is not convergent. Then apply that for particular $a$ and $b_n$ (see the end of the answer). $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24 at 21:04
  • $\begingroup$ For rational $a=p/q$ the sequence $\{na\}$ takes all the values $s/q$ for $0\le s<q.$ Equivalently for fixed $s$ we have $na=k+s/q$ for infinitely many $n.$ $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24 at 21:17
  • $\begingroup$ If $n$ is large so that $b_n<1/q$ and $na$ is an integer then $\{na-b_n\}=(q-1)/q.$ $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 24 at 21:27
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks. How did we get that $\{na-b_n\}=(q-1)/q$? What can we infer from $\{na-b_n\}=(q-1)/q$? $\endgroup$
    – Max
    Commented Jun 24 at 21:51

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