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Discovered the following relation: $$\sum _{k=1}^{\infty } \sigma (k) \left(K_2\left(4 \pi \sqrt{k+y} \sqrt{y}\right)-K_0\left(4 \pi \sqrt{k+y} \sqrt{y}\right)\right)=\frac{\pi K_1(4 \pi y)-3 K_0(4 \pi y)}{48 \pi ^2 y}$$

where $\sigma(x)$ is a divisors sum, $K_n(x)$ is Modified Bessel function of second kind and $y>0$.

Also each of sums $$\sum _{k=1}^{\infty } \sigma (k) K_2\left(4 \pi \sqrt{k+y} \sqrt{y}\right)$$ $$\sum _{k=1}^{\infty } \sigma (k) K_0\left(4 \pi \sqrt{k+y} \sqrt{y}\right)$$ converge.

The question here is: as the difference (the first sum) has a closed form, may we expect each of sums above to have the closed form either, and if so does someone know what it can be?


In order to partially satisfy @Greg Martin request let me just provide numerical examples which will show the correctness of first relation. As I don't know any simple way of proving it.

For $y=1$ $$\sum _{k=1}^{300} \sigma (k) \left(K_2\left(4 \pi \sqrt{k+1} \sqrt{1}\right)-K_0\left(4 \pi \sqrt{k+1} \sqrt{1}\right)\right) = 6.8126525731073335538349556626598125635572137980741872738568342124.10^{-10}$$

$$\frac{\pi K_1(4 \pi)-3 K_0(4 \pi)}{48 \pi ^2} = 6.8126525731073335538349556626598125635572137980741872738568342124.10^{-10}$$

For $y=0.2$ $$\sum _{k=1}^{300} \sigma (k) \left(K_2\left(4 \pi \sqrt{k+0.2} \sqrt{0.2}\right)-K_0\left(4 \pi \sqrt{k+0.2} \sqrt{0.2}\right)\right) = 0.000466622676964315708526403991580236142341156773881429672591795$$

$$\frac{\pi K_1(4 \pi 0.2)-3 K_0(4 \pi 0.2)}{48 \pi ^2 0.2} = 0.000466622676964315708526403991580236142344783982506129849211143$$


There is a promissive relation to Ramanujan's work.

Found another paper related to Hardy's work.

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    $\begingroup$ It feels like it would make sense to give some indication of why the first identity is true, if you want people to think about the question being asked. $\endgroup$ Commented May 5 at 7:14
  • $\begingroup$ Actually I don't know a simple way of proving it. :( So this is why trying to come frome the other end. $\endgroup$ Commented May 5 at 7:17
  • $\begingroup$ What evidence do you have that it's true? $\endgroup$ Commented May 5 at 15:39
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    $\begingroup$ I believe your sum simplifies to $$\sum\limits_{k=1}^{\infty} \sigma(k) \left(K_2\left(4 \pi \sqrt{k+y} \sqrt{y}\right)-K_0\left(4 \pi \sqrt{k+y} \sqrt{y}\right)\right)=\sum\limits_{k=1}^{\infty} \sigma(k) \frac{K_1\left(4 \pi \sqrt{y} \sqrt{k+y}\right)}{2 \pi \sqrt{y} \sqrt{k+y}}.$$ $\endgroup$ Commented May 8 at 16:42
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    $\begingroup$ Mathematica gives the Mellin transform $$\mathcal{M}_y\left[\frac{\pi K_1(4 \pi y)-3 K_0(4 \pi y)}{48 \pi ^2 y}\right](s)=\int_0^{\infty } \frac{\pi K_1(4 \pi y)-3 K_0(4 \pi y)}{48 \pi ^2 y} y^{s-1} \, dy=\frac{1}{3} 2^{-s-5} \pi ^{-s-1} \left(\pi\, \Gamma \left(\frac{s}{2}-1\right) \Gamma \left(\frac{s}{2}\right)-3\, \Gamma \left(\frac{s-1}{2}\right)^2\right),\quad\Re(s)>2$$ which has no $\zeta(s)$ term so I'm not sure how this ties into the Dirichlet divisor problem. $\endgroup$ Commented May 10 at 17:29

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