I have the following prediction for rank-1 perturbations of diagonal matrices, but I don't know how to prove (or disprove it).
Given $v:= [v_1,...,v_K] \in (0,1]^K$, we define $a:= \sum_{k=1}^K v_k = \mathbb{1}^\top v$ and $D:= \operatorname{diag}(av_1, ..., av_K)$. It's easy to observe that the matrix $A:= D-vv^\top$ has the properties : (i) all entries are negative except on the diagonal and (ii) the sum of each column's entries is 0. Furthermore $A$ is then a symmetric positive semidefinite matrix with eigendecomposition $A= U\Sigma U^\top$.
My claim: Its square root, i.e. $Q:= U \Sigma^{1/2} U^\top$ also has the properties (i) and (ii).
Property (ii) is not difficult to show as $U^\top \mathbb{1}$ must be in the kernel of $\Sigma$ which is equal to that of $\Sigma^{1/2}$. But I don't know how to proceed with property (i).
Context: In my case $v_k = 1/n_k$ for some $n_k\in \mathbb{N}$, but I think all what we need is $v_k \in (0,1]$. Also, what I want to show is that $P:= I-Q$ is a probability matrix. I have checked this statement by generating random values for $v_k$'s and it seems to be true.
Generalization: Although I only need the statement for square root, I think it's true generally for positive power, i.e. for $Q:= U \Sigma^{t} U^\top$ for any $t\geq 0$. However, to ensure that $I-Q$ is a probability matrix perhapse we need $t<1$.