I have checked that the following conjecture seems to be true:
There exists no interval of the form $[kn, (k+1)n]$ where each of the integers of the interval is divisible by at least one of the integers of the interval $(1,n]$
Note that the statement is easily provable for some intervals. For every $n$ and $k=0$ is true, as $1$ is not divisible by any of the integers of the interval $(1,n]$. For every $n$ and $k=(n-1)!$ is also true, as $n!+1$ is not divisible by any of the integers of the interval $(1,n]$.
Note also that there are $n-1$ integers in the interval $(1,n]$ and $n+1$ integers in the interval $[kn, (k+1)n]$, so by the Pigeonhole Principle, apart from $kn$ and $(k+1)n$, which are both divisible by $n$, there are at least another two integers of the interval divisible by the same integer of the interval $(1,n]$.
I guess that there is some modular relation supporting the statement. However, I am unable to prove it generally. Any hint towards a proof / disproof would be welcomed.
Thanks!