4
$\begingroup$

I am trying to verify that $\text{SL}_2 (\mathbb{Z})$ is a group under matrix multiplication. The only property I am not certain on is closure under inverses.

Given $A \in \text{SL}_2 (\mathbb{Z})$, I know that $A^{-1}$ exist (it has non-zero determinant). I need to show that $A^{-1}$ has determinant $1$ and integer entires. It's true in general that $\det(A^{-1}) = \frac{1}{\det(A)}$, so if $\det(A) = 1$, then $\det(A^{-1}) = 1$.

Proving that $A^{-1}$ has integer entries is a bit tougher, because I don't think it is necessarily true that if $\det(A^{-1}) = 1$, then all of its entries are integers (though I struggle to think of a counterexample). The only proof I could think of involves the adjugate matrix, $\text{adj}(A)$. In general, we have $$ A \text{adj}(A) = \det(A) I$. $$ As $\det(A) = 1$, the inverse of $A$ is the adjugate matrix. The adjugate matrix is the transpose of the matrix of cofactors, whose entries are partial determinants around entry $(i,j)$, up to a sign. The entries of $A$ are integers, so every entry of the matrix of cofactors is an integer ($\mathbb{Z}$ is closed under addition and multiplication), so the adjugate matrix contains only integers.

Is this reasoning sound?

$\endgroup$
6
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ $2\times2$-matrices are small. Why not just take an arbitrary element $A=(a_{i,j})$ of $SL_2(\mathbb{Z})$, and perform Gauss-Jordan elimination to see what the inverse looks like? $\endgroup$
    – Aweygan
    Commented Mar 14 at 5:12
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @Aweygan I could certainly do that, though I was looking for an approach that generalizes to the $n \times n$ case. Does this argument end up working? $\endgroup$
    – JohnT
    Commented Mar 14 at 5:23
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ Yes, you're reasoning is sound. From a high-brow approach, note that the set of $n \times n$ matrices over a ring $\mathbb{Z}$ is a topological group. (It's isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}^{n^2}$, treating coordinates appropriately). The determinant function is a continuous map to $\mathbb{Z}$ as it's a polynomial in the coordinates, and $\mathbb{Z}$ is also a topological group. The kernel of this function is $\mathrm{SL}(2, \mathbb{Z})$, which is therefore a (closed) subgroup. Even forgetting the topological aspect, this shows $\mathrm{SL}(2, \mathbb{Z})$ is a subgroup without much work. $\endgroup$
    – davidlowryduda
    Commented Mar 14 at 7:23
  • 4
    $\begingroup$ @davidlowryduda Your comment is confusing the two different operations on $n\times n$ matrices: From the group of matrices (under addition), the determinant map is just some map to $\mathbb{Z}$. Its "kernel" is not $\mathrm{SL}$, but even granted that we adapt the map by subtracting 1, this kernel has no reason to be a subgroup (and is not, under addition). What the determinant is a homomorphism for, is the monoid structure from matrix multiplication. For this, $\mathrm{SL}$ really is the kernel, but as such is only guaranteed to be a submonoid, which was never in question. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 14 at 9:55
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @TimSeifert You're right! Instead of working with the $n \times n$ matrices, I suppose I should have started with $\mathrm{GL}(n, \mathbb{Z})$ (under multiplication). This is a group, and now the determinant shows that $\mathrm{SL}(n, \mathbb{Z})$ is a (normal) subgroup. $\endgroup$
    – davidlowryduda
    Commented Mar 14 at 15:58

4 Answers 4

3
$\begingroup$

The argument with the adjugate matrix is correct and using it will get you to the heart of the matter: Any $n\times n$ matrix $A$ with entries in any commutative ring $R$ is invertible (in $R^{n\times n}$) if and only if $\det(A)$ is a unit in $R$.

Having established this, it is then clear that $\mathrm{SL}_n(R)$ as the kernel of $\det$ only contains invertible matrices and is therefore a group by your previous arguments.

$\endgroup$
3
$\begingroup$

You can just use the (unique) explicit form of the inverse of a $2 \times 2$ matrix, which is given by $$ A^{-1}=\frac{1}{\det(A)} \begin{pmatrix}d & -b \\ -c & a \end{pmatrix} $$ and this has integer entries if $A$ has only integer entries and $\det(A)= \pm 1$.

$\endgroup$
3
$\begingroup$

Here's another approach for proving that $SL_n(\mathbb Z)$ is closed under inverses. Let $A\in SL_n(\mathbb Z)$. Consider the characteristic polynomial of $A$, $p_A(x)=\text{det}(xI_n-A)=x^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+\ldots+a_1x+a_0$. Note that $a_0=p_A(0)=det(-A)=(-1)^ndet(A)=(-1)^n$ and $a_i\in\mathbb Z$. By Cayley-Hamilton theorem it follows that $p_A(A)=0$, and hence $$0=A(A^{n-1}+a_{n-1}A^{n-2}+\ldots+a_1I_n)+(-1)^nI_n,$$ which implies that $$A^{-1}=(-1)^{n+1}(A^{n-1}+a_{n-1}A^{n-2}+\ldots+a_1I_n).$$ Then necessarily $A^{-1}$ has integer coefficients.

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

Proving that $A^{−1}$ has integer entries is a bit tougher, because I don't think it is necessarily true that if $\det(A^{-1})=1$, then all of its entries are integers (though I struggle to think of a counterexample).

This logic is not valid. There is no such counterexample. If $A$ is in $SL_2(\Bbb Z)$, then we cannot find a counterexample, because actually $SL_2(\Bbb Z)$ is a group, as we know.

If $A\in M_2(\Bbb Z)$ just satisfies $\det(A^{-1})=1$, then we have $\det(A)\det(A^{-1})=\det(AA^{-1})=\det(I)=1$, so that $\det(A^{-1})=1$ implies also $\det(A)=1$, i.e., $A\in SL_2(\Bbb Z)$. So there is no counterexample.

If you drop the condition that $A$ has integer coefficients, and only require $\det(A^{-1})=1$, then of course you can take $$ A=\begin{pmatrix} \frac{1}{2} & 0 \cr 0 & 2\end{pmatrix}. $$

$\endgroup$
7
  • 2
    $\begingroup$ This answer already presupposes that every matrix in $\mathrm{SL}_2(\mathbb{Z})$ is invertible (in the integer matrices). But this is exactly the question. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 14 at 10:24
  • $\begingroup$ No, I only assume that $\det(A)=1$ for $A\in M_2(\Bbb Z)$ by definition of $SL_2(\Bbb Z)$. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 14 at 12:35
  • $\begingroup$ Well, as rewritten you only show that the inverse of an invertible matrix $A$ in $\mathrm{SL}_2$ again has determinant 1. There is no argument, why this inverse has to exist for all matrices in $\mathrm{SL}_2(\mathbb{Z})$, or why (if you mean the inverse in, say, $\mathrm{GL}_2(\mathbb{Q})$), it has to have integer coefficients. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 14 at 12:54
  • $\begingroup$ This is not what the OP meant. He wanted to find an obvious counterexample with a matrix $A$ of size $2$, where he assumed that $\det(A^{-1})=1$. I am only saying that there is no obvious counterexample, if you also want integer coeffcients for $A$, because actually $SL_2(\Bbb Z)$ is a group. For rational coefficients I gave the obvious counterexample. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 14 at 12:57
  • $\begingroup$ As I read the question, they explicitly ask why the inverse of a matrix in $\mathrm{SL}_2(\mathbb{Z})$ again has integer coefficients. (But maybe I'm wrong on that, only OP can tell.) $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 14 at 13:02

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .