I am studying a set of lecture notes on group theory, and I don't think I understand a point the author makes about the unit circle and its symmetry group in relation to $\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z}$.
Let $S^1$ denote the set of $(x,y) \in \mathbb{R}^2$ with $x^2 + y^2 = 1$. (This could be complex, I believe, and we'd arrive at the same conclusion. That could be the missing link my understanding.) The symmetry group of $S^1$ consists of rotations and reflections, which is infinite. I cannot fully visualize this, but my mental picture is that it takes a point $(x,y)$ on the circle and either moves it counterclockwise along the unit circle (in polar coordinates, the value of $\theta$ increases mod $2\pi$) or reflects it in any line through the origin.
The author claims that the rotation of $S^1$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z}$. I'm not certain I fully understand this. I believe the complex unit circle is isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z}$ with isomorphism given by (denoting the complex unit circle by $C^1$) $$ f: \mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z} \to C^1, \; t \mapsto \exp(2\pi t i). $$ Here I am thinking of $\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z}$ as the set $[0,1)$, so varying $t$ amounts to varying the polar angle in the complex plane. Since $\mathbb{C} \cong \mathbb{R}^2$ as a vector space, it seems to me that this conclusion should be unchanged. But then $\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Z}$ is isomorphic to both the unit circle in $\mathbb{R}^2$ and the group of rotations of the unit circle, so the unit circle is isomorphic to its rotation group. This doesn't make sense to me, so something must be wrong with my understanding.